GS Mock Test V for BPSC & Bihar Exams: 100 MCQs with Answers & Explanations
Practice 100 General Studies MCQs with click-to-reveal answers and detailed explanations for BPSC CCE, BPSC TRE, Bihar SSC and Bihar Daroga exams. Covers History, Indian Polity, Geography, Economics, General Science and Bihar Special GK.
Subjects covered
- Indian History
- Indian Polity & Constitution
- Geography
- Indian Economy
- General Science
- Bihar History & Geography
- Bihar Economy, Polity & Culture
- Bihar Special GK
- Important General Studies Facts
Ideal for: BPSC CCE, BPSC TRE, Bihar SSC, Bihar Police / Bihar Daroga and other Bihar competitive examinations.
About this mock test
Test and improve your General Studies preparation with this comprehensive 100-question GS Mock Test designed for BPSC CCE, BPSC TRE, Bihar SSC, Bihar Daroga and other Bihar government examinations. The test covers the most important areas of General Studies, including Ancient, Medieval and Modern Indian History, Indian Polity, Geography, Indian Economy, General Science and Bihar Special GK.
Each question is followed by a click-to-reveal answer and explanation, allowing you to attempt the question independently before checking the correct answer. The explanations are designed to help you understand the underlying concept rather than simply memorising the answer.
Use this mock test to assess your preparation, identify weak areas, revise important facts and improve accuracy and speed before the examination. The questions are structured around the type of factual, conceptual and analytical questions commonly encountered in competitive examinations.
Consider the following statements
1. The word Satyameva Jayate was taken from Mundaka Upanishad
2. It is inscribed in the Kharosthi Script at the base of the Lion Capital of Ashoka
Which of the above statements are correct?
- Satyameva Jayate (Truth alone triumphs) is a part of a mantra from the Hindu scripture Mundaka Upanishad.
- Following the independence of India, it was adopted as the national emblen of India on 26th January 1950.
- It is inscribed in the Devanagari script at the base of the Lion Capital of Ashoka and forms an integral part of the Indian national emblem.
- The emblem and the words Satyameva Jayate are inscribed on one side of all Indian currency and national documents.
Consider the following statements for the Second Buddhist Council:
1. It was held in Rajgriha
2. Sabbakami presided over the council
3. The council resulted in the first division in the Bud- dhist Sangha.
Which of the above statements are correct?
- The second Buddhist council was organized at Vaishali (Bihar) in 383 BC under the chairmanship of Sabbakami during the reign of Kalashoka or Kakavarnin of Shishunaga dynasty.
- Its purpose was to resolve the dispute that arose between the Vajji monks and their opponents.
- This resulted in the first division in the Buddhist Sangha, with the Kattathtarists being called Sthaviravidis or Theravadis and the non-Kattattharists being called Mahasanghikas or Sarvastvidis.
The advanced style of black basalt stone and bronze sculpture in Bihar was developed during which of the following periods?
lanation:- The Pala period (8th to 12th century CE) is renowned for the development of an advanced style of art and architecture, especially in Bihar and Bengal. Black basalt stone sculptures and intricate bronze casting reached new heights during this period, particularly in the creation of Buddhist and Hindu deities. This period is also notable for its detailed craftsmanship, elegance, and the fusion of indigenous traditions with Buddhist iconography, which spread to other regions like Southeast Asia and Tibet. The Pala dynasty became famous for their patronage of art, sculpture, and monasteries, including Nalanda and Vikramashila.
Which one of the following texts helped to identify the initial year of the Gupta era by stating that the Gupta era began 241 years after the beginning of the Shaka era?
- Tahqiq-i-Hind: It was written by Al-Biruni. Al-Biruni travelled to India to satisfy his curiosity about the land and its people and to study their ancient texts in their original language.
- Raghuvamsa: It was written by Kalidasa. One of the most celebrated names among Sanskrit writers of the 1st millennium is that of Kalidasa (4th - 5th century)
- Amarakosha: It was written by Amarasimha. Lexicography is one of the important branches of technical literature in Sanskrit. The Nighantu, a vocabulary of Vedic words, is the oldest lexicon so far known. The Nirukta of Yaska (800 B. C.) is a commentary on it.
With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world?
Bodhisattvas are enlightened beings who choose to delay their own liberation in order to help all living beings. There are numerous bodhisattvas in Buddhism. Maitreya, also known as the Future Buddha, is believed to be the fifth Buddha who will appear in the current era or Kalpa. In various Buddhist sutras such as the Amitabha Sutra and the Lotus Sutra, Maitreya Buddha is referred to as Ajita. Maitreya makes his first appearance in Buddhist scriptures in the Lakkavatti Sutta of Pali Tripitika. Avalokiteshvara (The Lord who Looks Down) is another well-known bodhisattva depicted in Buddhist art. This bodhisattva is recognized by different names in different Buddhist regions, such as Guanyin in China and Kannon in Japan. Another name is Padmapani (The Lotus Bearer). Lokesvara is also a form of Avalokiteshvara. BCW BITS Manjusri is a significant Bodhisattva known for helping people understand things better. Manjusri is often shown holding a sword to get rid of mistakes and lies, and a book that describes the ten paramitas. These paramitas are important qualities that Bodhisattvas develop and they represent virtues that are essential for spiritual growth. Vajrapani, a Bodhisattva, is the enemy of sin and evil, and, like the god Indra, bears a thunderbolt in his hand. Samantabhadra, Bodhisattva of Practice and Meditation. Ksitigarbha, in Sanskrit it means “womb of the Earth”. He is the saviour of the oppressed, the dying, and the dreamer of evil dreams.
What does the term ‘Hundi’ mean, which was used during the post-Harsha period?
During the post-Harsha period, Hundi was used as a financial instrument. Salient Features of Hundi: 1. used as a negotiable instrument that can be transferred from one person to another. 2. used for both domestic and foreign trade transactions (As a Bill of Exchange). 3. Used as a credit instrument.
Who was the founder of the Chola dynasty? (67th Cancelled BPSC)
The founder of the Chola dynasty was Vijayalaya. It is to be noted that after the Sangam period, Cholas were subjugated and they worked under Pallavas. Vijayalaya was the first who separated from Pallavas. Later Aditya 1st solidified their rule. The capital of the Chola empire was Tanjore. The Tiger or jumping tiger was the royal emblem of the Cholas and was depicted on coins, seals, and banners. Later Rajaraja Chola and Rajendra I attacked Sri Lanka and they almost took control of it. Rajendra I assumed the title of Gangaikondachola and built a city called Gangaikondacholapuram. The last ruler of the Chola Dynasty was Rajendra III. The naval power of Cholas was very strong. They extended their power up to Sumatra under Rajendra Chola. Cholas also attacked the region of Bengal which was under the pala empire. After defeating Mahipala, Rajendra Chola took the title of Gangaikondachola; he also established Gangaikondachola- puram near Tanjore.
Which Jain Tirthankara is associated with attaining Nirvana at Mandar Hill?
According to Jain tradition, the 12th Tirthankara, Vasupujya, attained Nirvana at Mandar Hill. The hill is a significant pilgrimage site for Jains, featuring several temples and shrines dedicated to various Tirthankaras.
Dockyard is unearthed from which Chalcolithic site?
Daimabad, located on the left bank of the Pravara River in Maharashtra's Ahmednagar district, was first uncovered by B.P. Bopardikar in 1958. It is famous for the recovery of bronze goods. Exp: Refer to Q. No. 1.
With reference to Sher Shah Suri, consider the following statements
1. He assumed the title of “Hazrat-e-Ala”.
2. The battle of Chausa was fought between Sher Shah Suri and Babur.
3. Sher Shah Suri’s original name was Farid Khan.
4. Shershah Suri lost the Battle of Kannauj to Babur.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: After overthrowing Nusrat Shah, the emperor of Bengal, in 1534 AD, Sher Khan adopted the title “Hazrat-e-Ala.” Statement 2 is incorrect: After defeating Humayun in the Battle of Chausa on June 26, 1539, he took on the title of “Sher Shah” and gave the order to read Khutba by name and have coins produced in his honour. Statement 3 is correct: Sher Shah Suri’s original name was Farid Khan. He was the son of Hasan Khan, a jagirdar of Sasaram in Bihar. Statement 4 is incorrect: The Battle of Kannauj took place at Kannauj, Uttar Pradesh, India between Sher Shah Suri and Humayun on 17 May 1540.
Consider the following :
1. He was the disciple of Ramananda
2. His verses are found in Guru Granth Sahib
3. The major part of his work was collected by the fifth Sikh guru, Guru Arjan Dev. The above mentioned phrases describe?
- Sant Kabir Das was born in Varanasi. He was a 15th century mystic poet, saint and social reformer and a proponent of the Bhakti Movement.
- Kabir's legacy is still going on through a sect known as Panth of Kabir, a religious community that considers him as the founder.
- He was strongly influenced by his teacher, the Hindu bhakti leader Ramananda.
- Literature: Kabir Das' writings had a great influence on the Bhakti movement and includes titles like Kabir Granthawali, Anurag Sagar, Bijak, and Sakhi Granth.All the above mentioned phrases describes Kabir.
With reference to mian Tansen which of the following statements is incorrect?
The 99th edition of the annual Tansen Samaroh was held on December 2023 at the samadhi(gwalior) of legendary musician Tansen, one of the nine jewels of Mughal emperor Akbar's court.He is given credit for introducing some famous ragas viz., Miyan ki Malhar, Miyan ki Todi and Darbari.
Who led the Mughal army in the Battle of Haldighati? 129 Medieval History (1) Bhagwan Das (2) Man Singh (3) Akbar (4) Asaf Khan
Select the correct answer using the following code:
The Battle of Haldighati was fought in 1576 CE between the forces of Maharana Pratap of Mewar and the Mughal army of Akbar. The battle took place near Haldighati Pass in present-day Rajasthan. The name “Haldighati” comes from the yellow- colored soil of the region, which resembles turmeric (haldi). The Mughal army in this battle was led mainly by Man Singh I, the Kachhwaha Rajput ruler of Amber and one of Akbar’s most trusted generals. Along with him, Asaf Khan also played an important role in leading the Mughal forces. Maharana Pratap fought bravely with the support of his loyal chiefs like Hakim Khan Sur and Bhil warriors. His famous horse Chetak became legendary in Rajput history and folklore. Although the Mughal forces gained control of the battlefield, Maharana Pratap was not captured and he continued resistance against the Mughals for many years. Thus, many historians were of the view that battle was not a complete political victory for the Mughals. Raja Bhagwant Das was an important Rajput noble in Akbar’s court and belonged to the Amber royal family, but he did not lead the Mughal army in the Battle of Haldighati. Akbar himself did not fought directly in the Battle of Haldighati. Unlike earlier Delhi Sultans, Akbar followed a policy of alliance and cooperation with many Rajput rulers. Several Rajput kingdoms accepted Mughal suzerainty and became part of the Mughal nobility. However, Mewar under Maharana Pratap strongly resisted Mughal authority. BCW Bits: Capitals of Mewar during Maharana Pratap’s reign were: Gogunda: Temporary capital and site of Pratap's coronation Kumbhalgarh: Adopted as his seat of government for a period. Chavand: Established as the new capital in 1585. Chittor was captured by Akbar before the Battle of Haldighati. Raja Bhagwant Das, the Kachwaha ruler of Amber, was a powerful general for the Mughal Empire under Emperor Akbar. He played a vital role in consolidating Mughal- Rajput relations. His sister, Mariam-uz-Zamani (historically referred to as Jodha Bai), was Akbar's chief consort and mother of Emperor Jahangir. His eldest son, Raja Man Singh I, became one of the most prominent "Navaratnas" (Nine Jewels) of Akbar’s court. His daughter, Man Bai (Shah Begum), was married to Prince Salim (later Emperor Jahangir) in 1585.
Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to the album and individual portraits?
During Jahangir’s reign there was a shift of emphasis in Mughal painting from illustrated manuscripts to the album and individual portraits. Under his patronage, the Mughal painting achieved naturalism and scientific accuracy of the highest degree. Painting reached its peak/zenith during the time of Jahangir. The war scenes, portraits, narrative and storytelling prevalent in Akbar’s style were overtaken by minute details and refined rendering of lavish court scenes, aristocracy, royal personalities, as well as, character traits, and distinctiveness of flora and fauna. Individual Mughal paintings known as ‘The Muraqqas’ became popular under Jahangir’s patronage. The famous painters of Jahangir were Aqa Riza of Iran & his son Abul Hasan (he was given the title of "Nadir -ul-Zaman" meaning "Wonders of age" by Jahangir) Ustad Mansur (he was a great naturalist & used to depict birds like Hornbill, Diving Dipper etc in his paintings which was a masterpiece), Faruq Begh, Muhammad Nadir, Madhav, Bishan Das, Manohar, Goverdhan, Balchand, Daulat, Mukhlis, Bhim and Inayat. Famous paintings of that time are Zebra, Turkey, and Maulana-do-Pyaza. Bcw Bits: When Humayun returned to India, he brought two eminent Persian artists with him- Mir- Sayyid Ali and Abd-us-Samad. The Mughal painting shows a mixture of Indian, Persian and Islamic styles. The earliest example of the Mughal style is the Tutinama (‘Tales of a Parrot’) Painting and Hamzanama. Famous painters during the time of Akbar were: - Syed Ali & Abdus Samad (both made the famous Hamzanama painting) Baswan & Daswanth. Medieval History.
“Yoga Vasistha” was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of:
The Yoga Vasistha Samhita also known as Maha-Ramayana or Yoga Vasistha-Ramayana is a philosophical text of Hinduism, dating.
Guna Samudra and Mahakaviray were the titles given to which Mughal Emperor?
- Titles to Shahjahan: Guna Samudra, Raj Kavi and Mahakaviray.
- Titles to Akbar: Jagat Guru, Zari Kalam, Sarin Kalam, Raj Kavi, Kavi Priya.
- Titles to Jahangir: Nadir - ul - Asra, Nadir- uz - Zaman.
Shaikh Bahauddin Zakaria belonged to which sect?
Shaikh Bahauddin Zakaria was the founder of the Suhrawardi Silsilah in India. It was founded by Shaikh Shihabuddin Suhrawardi. It was popular in Multan, Lahore, and Sindh. This silsilah is considered more orthodox than Chisti. The Suhrawardis accepted royal grants and took active part in politics. Baha-ud-din Zakaria was the greatest saint of this silsilah and he invited Iltutmish to attack Qubacha in Multan and was given the title of Shaikh-ul-Islam by Iltutmish. BCW Bits: Sufi Order Founder Chisti Order Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti Qadiri Order Abdul Qadir Gilani Baha-ud-Din Naqshband Naqshbandi Order Shahabuddin Suhrawardi Suhrawardi Order Firdausi Order Sheikh Badruddin Samarqandi Khwaja Ali Hujjwiri is known as Data Ganj Baksh. Sheikh Nasiruddin Mahmud was known as Chirag-i-Delhi.
With reference to the administration of the British Government in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Izaredari system was introduced during the tenure of Lord Dalhousie.
2. Lord Metcalfe freed the Indian Press from the restrictions imposed by the Licensing Regulation Act of 1823. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
- Statement 1 is incorrect.
- The Governor of Bengal, Warren Hastings, introduced the Izaredari system in 1773 in the province of Bengal.
- It is a system of revenue farming in which European District Collectors would 'farm' out the right to collect revenue to the highest bidder.
- This system was a total failure and ruined the cultivators because of the arbitrarily high revenue demands.
- Lord Metcalfe is known as the Liberator of the Indian Press. He relaxed the restrictions imposed by the Licensing Regulations Act, 1823.
Consider the following statements and select the correct option using the code- 1. In 1931, Gangasharan Sinha, Ramvriksh Benipur and Ramanand Mishra etc. established an organization named 'Bihar Socialist Party'.
2. In 1934, Acharya Narendra Dev, Minu Masani and Jai Prakash Narayan formally formed the Congress Social- ist Party.
3. The founder president of the Congress Socialist Party was Jai Prakash Narayan.
4. The Socialist Party worked with the objective of orga- nizing farmers and laborers and providing them eco- nomic justice.
Which of the above statements is correct?
- Gangasharan Sinha, Ramvriksh Benipuri and Ramanand Mishra etc. formed the Bihar Socialist Party in 1931.
- The Congress Socialist Party was formally established in 1934 in Anjuman Islamia Hall, Patna.
- Acharya Narendra Dev, Minu Masani and Jaiprakash Narayan jointly formed it.
- Acharya Narendra Dev was the founder president of the Congress Socialist Party and Jaiprakash Narayan was the secretary.
- The Socialist Party worked with the objective of organizing farmers and laborers and providing them economic justice.
- It is clear that only statement (3) is false, hence option (b) is correct.
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Poligars’ Revolt was one of the earliest uprisings against British rule in southern India, driven by the imposition of heavy land revenue demands on the Poligars.
Statement II: The Poligars were traditionally responsible for collecting land revenue in the regions they controlled and the British sought to undermine this authority by enforcing direct revenue collection. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
The Poligars (Palaiyakkarars) were local chiefs in parts of Tamil Nadu (especially Tirunelveli–Madurai region). They controlled small territories, collected land revenue, and maintained local military forces. The Poligar Revolt (or Palaiyakkarar Wars) was a series of armed uprisings between 1799 and 1805 in southern India (primarily in modern-day Tamil Nadu). It was fought by local feudal chieftains (Poligars) against the British East India Company, triggered by oppressive taxation policies and British attempts to dismantle traditional regional autonomy. British East India Company removed Poligars’ authority by trying to collect revenue directly. Disarmament orders and loss of autonomy added to resentment. These revolts are among the earliest anti-British resistances in South India. Key figures: Veerapandiya Kattabomman, Marudu Brothers. BCW Bits: The conÀicts are often called the ³Polygar Wars´ (First & Second) The British used military campaigns and fort demolitions to suppress them. These uprisings preceded larger rebellions like Vellore (1806) and 1857 Highlighted early resistance to centralised colonial revenue systems. Many forts (e.g., Panchalankurichi) became symbols of resistance.
Which of the following statements regarding the Nationalist Approach to the history of modern India is false?
For the convenience of understanding, modern India’s history can be broadly classified into four historiographic approaches - The colonial (or the Imperialist), Nationalist, Marxist, and Subaltern - each with its different characteristics and modes of interpretation. Nationalist Approach:.
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the Treaty of 1760, signed between Mir Qasim and the Company?
Important features of the treaty were as follows: Mir Qasim consented to give the Company control over the districts of Chittagong, Midnapore, and Burdwan. The Company would receive half of the Sylhet trade stake in Chunam. Mir Qasim agreed to settle the outstanding debt owed to the business. Mir Qasim pledged to provide five lakh rupees to support the Company’s military operations in South India. It was decided that Mir Qasim’s allies were also the Company’s friends and that the Company’s adversaries were his foes. It was decided that Nawab tenants would not be permitted to settle on Company property, and vice versa.
Match the following leaders with the places they led during the Salt Satyagraha: Leaders Places
lanation:- C. Rajagopalachari led the Salt Satyagraha in Tamil Nadu, marching to Vedaranyam on the southeastern coast to break the salt law. During the Salt Satyagraha of 1930, Kelappan led a march from Calicut (Kozhikode) to the coastal town of Payyanur in Kerala. Sardar Patel had previously led the Bardoli Satyagraha in 1928, and during the Salt Satyagraha, he played a significant role in organizing the movement in Gujarat. Mahatma Gandhi led the famous Salt March to Dandi, where he made salt on April 6, 1930, marking the beginning of the Salt Satyagraha.
Plants are also associated with the colonial British rule in India and have been linked to some revolts on Indian soil. Choose the one that is also associated with one of the great freedom fighters
Indigofera tinctoria is the Correct answer : This plant is the source of natural Indigo dye, which was at the center of the famous Indigo Revolt (Neel Vidroha) of 1859±1860 in Bengal. The British planters forced Indian farmers to grow indigo instead of food crops, often through brutal oppression and exploitative contracts. The struggle was highlighted in the play Neel Darpan by Dinabandhu Mitra. This movement is deeply linked to the freedom struggle and historical figures like Mahatma Gandhi, who later launched his first major Satyagraha in India at Champaran (1917) specifically to support the indigo farmers against the oppressive "Tinkathia" system. Pyrus malus: This is the scientific name for the common apple. While apple cultivation in India was encouraged in some hilly regions during British rule (like in Himachal Pradesh and Kashmir), it is not associated with any specific freedom struggle or revolt. Azadirachta indica: Commonly known as the Neem tree. While it is a sacred and highly respected tree in Indian culture for its medicinal properties, it is not historically linked to any specific revolt against British colonial rule. Ficus indica: The Banyan tree. While the Banyan is iconic to the Indian landscape and has been a site for community gatherings and historic protests, it is not specifically defined as a crop or plant linked to a singular "revolt" in the way Indigo was.
Which of the following newspapers was published by Sasipada Banerjea, a prominent social reformer?
lanation:- Sasipada Banerjea, a significant figure in the social reform movement in 19th-century India, was associated with the publication of Bharat Shramjeevi. This newspaper was instrumental in advocating for social reforms and addressing issues pertinent to the working class and broader society.
Which of the following is associated with “The Philosophy of the Bomb”?
Bhagwaticharan Vohra is associated with the book “The Philosophy of the Bomb.” He was a prominent member of the revolutionary group involved in bomb-making and attacks against British authorities. This philosophy was notably embraced by various revolutionary groups aiming to use violence as a means to achieve political change and independence from British rule.
Where was the Ghadar Party established?
The Ghadar Party was founded in 1913 at San Francisco (USA), mainly by Indian immigrants, especially Punjabis living abroad. The movement aimed to overthrow British rule in India through revolutionary activities and armed struggle. One of the major leaders associated with the party was Lala Har Dayal. Other important revolutionaries included Sohan Singh Bhakna and Kartar Singh Sarabha. The party published a newspaper called Ghadar, which spread revolutionary ideas among Indians living overseas. The word “Ghadar” means revolt or rebellion. The organization believed that British rule in India could not be ended only through petitions or constitutional methods and therefore promoted revolutionary action. Shyamji Krishna Varma established India House in London, which became a center for Indian revolutionaries. BCW Bits: The Komagata Maru incident inÀuenced revolutionary nationalism among overseas Indians. The Ghadar movement gained momentum during World War I. Rash Behari Bose later associated with revolutionary activities abroad. Many Ghadar revolutionaries were prosecuted in the Lahore Conspiracy Case.
Who was the first Indian woman President of the Indian National Congress?
Sarojini Naidu became the first Indian woman president of the Indian National Congress in the 1925 Kanpur session. BCW Bits: Sarojini Naidu presided over the Asian Relations Conference in 1947. After India gained independence, she was appointed as the Governor of Uttar Pradesh. Her works on poetry are The Golden Threshold, published in 1905; The Feather of the Dawn; The Bird of Time, published in 1912, and The Broken Wing, published in 1917.
Who launched secret radio during Quit India Movement?
Secret radio was launched during Quit India Movement by various underground leaders (who have fortunately escaped the arrests). Some famous broadcasters were Usha Mehta, Ram Manohar Lohia, etc. This "Congress radio" was broadcasted from different locations in Bombay and was heard up to Madras.
With reference to Anti Defection Law which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The law applies to both the Members of the Parliament and State Assemblies.
2. It does not penalise political parties for encouraging or accepting defecting legislators.
3. The Speakers should decide on a defection petition within three months under the law.
4. It does not restrict a legislator from voting in line with his conscience, judgement and interests of his electorate.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
- Statement 1 is correct. The Anti-defection law was passed in 1985 through the 52nd Amendment to the Constitution. The law was contained in the 10th Schedule of the Constitution. It was formulated to bring stability to the Indian political system. It lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on the grounds of defection by the Presiding Officer of a legislature based on a petition by any other member of the House. This law applies to both the Parliament and State Legislature.
- Statement 2 is correct. A legislator is deemed to have defected if he either voluntarily gives up his party's membership or disobeys the party leadership's directives on a vote. This implies that a legislator defying (abstaining or voting against) the party whip on any issue can lose his membership in the House. But this law does not penalize the political parties for encouraging or accepting defecting legislators.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. This law does not provide a time frame for the presiding officer to decide on a defection case. The court held that Speakers should decide on a defection petition within three months, but it is not a mandatory provision mentioned in the law.
- Statement 4 is incorrect. Anti-Defection law restricts a legislator from voting in line with his conscience, judgement and interests of his electorate. Such a situation obstructs the legislature's function over the government by ensuring that members vote based on the decisions taken by the party leadership and not to achieve the interest of their constituents would like them to vote for.
In relation to cabinet committees consider the following statements:
1. They are formed under transaction of business rules, 1971 2. Cabinet committees are mentioned in constitution.
3. A non-cabinet minister can be a member of them.
4. They are setup and dissolved by Prime Minister. How many of the statements given above are correct?
- They are formed under transaction of business rules, 1961. Thus statement 1 is incorrect.
- Cabinet committees are not mentioned in constitution. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- A non-cabinet minister can be a member of them. Their decision can be reviewed by cabinet. Statement 3 is correct.
- They are setup and dissolved by Prime Minister. Statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements - 1. Gram Panchayat is the first level of democratic government.
2. District Panchayat is the second tier of democratic government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
26 During the Green Revolution period, farmers were selling a significant part of their wheat and rice surplus production in the market. As a result, the prices of food grains decreased compared to other consumer goods. Lower income groups, which spend a large percentage of their total income on food, benefited greatly from this relative decline in prices. Due to Green Revolution, the government was able to obtain sufficient food grains and create safe stock which could be used in times of food shortage. Although the country has greatly benefited from the Green Revolution, this technology is not completely safe. One risk was that this was likely to increase inequalities between small and large farmers, as only large farmers were able to purchase the required inputs, thereby reaping most of the benefits of the Green Revolution. Apart from this, these crops are also more likely to be attacked by pesticides. In such a situation, the entire crop of small farmers adopting this technology is destroyed. Fortunately, these fears did not prove true due to some measures taken by the government. The government gave loans to small farmers at low interest rates and provided financial assistance on fertilizers, so that these essential inputs could be available to small farmers. With the availability of these inputs to small farmers, the yield and productivity of small farms over time became equal to that of larger farms. Thus, all small and big farmers benefited.
Which article of the Indian Constitution enables the government to enact separate laws for the governance and administration of tribal areas?
Article 244 of the Indian Constitution is the primary provision that enables the government to enact separate systems of governance and administration for "Scheduled Areas" and "Tribal Areas." This article facilitates the application of the Fifth Schedule for the administration of scheduled areas and tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, and the Sixth Schedule specifically for the tribal areas within those four northeastern states. The intent behind this article is to provide a degree of autonomy and specialized legal frameworks to protect the social, cultural, and economic interests of indigenous communities, often bypassing or modifying general state and central laws to suit their unique customs. BCW Bits: Article 243: This article (and its subsequent parts 243A to 243O) pertains to the Panchayati Raj System, defining the constitution, powers, and authority of local self-government in rural areas. Article 245: This governs the extent of laws made by Parliament and by the Legislatures of States, establishing the territorial jurisdiction for federal and state legislation. Article 249: This grants Parliament the power to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List if it is deemed necessary or expedient in the national interest, provided the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect by a two-thirds majority.
If any question as to the disqualification of member of state legislature arises, the question shall be referred for the decision of:
Article 192 of the Indian Constitution states that the Governor has the authority to decide whether to disqualify a member of the State Legislative Assembly for reasons other than defection, which are addressed in the Tenth Schedule.
With reference to Writs which of the following statements is incorrect?
- Statement 1 is correct. The writ of habeas corpus can be issued against both public authorities as well as private individuals. The writ, on the other hand, is not issued where the (a) detention is lawful, (b) the proceeding is for contempt of a legislature or a court, (c) detention is by a competent court, and (d) detention is outside the jurisdiction of the court.
- Statement 2 is correct. The writ of mandamus cannot be issued (a) against a private individual or body; (b) to enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force; (c) when the duty is discretionary and not mandatory; (d) to enforce a contractual obligation; (e) against the president of India or the state governors; and (f) against the chief justice of a high court acting in judicial capacity.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The writ of prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi judicial authorities. It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies.
- Statement 4 is correct. Previously, the writ of certiorari could be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities and not against administrative authorities. However, in 1991, the Supreme Court ruled that the certiorari can be issued even against administrative authorities affecting rights of individuals. Like prohibition, certiorari is also not available against legislative bodies and private individuals or bodies.
The ‘Quasi federal form of government’ in the Indian Constitution has been taken from the Constitution of which country?
Constitution of Canada A Quasi-federal form of government (federal system with a strong central government) doctrine of residual powers.
Which of the following terms in the Preamble best describes the notion that ‘India’s status as a sovereign state with an elected head of state, reflecting its commitment to democratic governance’?
lanation:- In the Preamble to the Indian Constitution, the term “Republic” signifies that India is a sovereign state where the head of state is elected, rather than a hereditary monarch. This reflects the country’s commitment to a democratic system of governance, where power resides with the people and is exercised through their elected representatives. As a republic, India ensures that its highest office, the President, is chosen by a democratic process, embodying the principles of democracy and the rule of law.
The 93rd Amendment of the Constitution relates to the following:
The 93rd Amendment (2005) inserted Article 15(5) into the Constitution, which states that nothing in Article 15 or Article 19(1)(g) shall prevent the State from making special provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes or for SCs and STs regarding their admission to educational institutions. This includes private educational institutions, whether aided or unaided by the State, except minority educational institutions protected under Article 30(1). Article 15 originally prohibits discrimination by the State on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. However, over time, constitutional amendments and judicial interpretations allowed the State to make special provisions for disadvantaged groups in order to achieve substantive equality. The amendment provided constitutional backing for laws enabling reservation for OBCs in centrally funded educational institutions. This eventually led to the Central Educational Institutions (Reservation in Admission) Act, 2006, which introduced 27% reservation for OBCs in many central educational institutions. The Supreme Court later examined the validity of the 93rd Amendment in the famous Ashoka Kumar Thakur v. Union of India case and upheld the constitutional validity of OBC reservations in central educational institutions, though the creamy layer principle was emphasized for OBCs. Reservation policies in India are based on the idea of substantive equality and social justice. BCW Bits: 42nd Amendment – related to Fundamental Duties (Swarn Singh Committee) 44th Amendment - Emergency reforms 52nd Amendment - Anti-defection 61st Amendment - Voting age 18 years 73rd / 74th Amendment - Local self-government 86th Amendment - Right to Education 93rd Amendment - Reservation in educational institutions. 106th Amendment - Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam. 58. Consider the following provisions given in the Indian Constitution: [BPSC AEDO] 1. Article 280 – Election Commission of India 2. Article 315 – Union Public Service Commission 3. Article 324 – Finance Commission Which of the above statements is not correct? A. Only one B. Only one and three C. All three D. None of the above Ans. B Exp: Article 280 actually deals with the Finance Commission, a constitutional body appointed by the President of India to recommend distribution of financial resources between the Centre and the States. It plays a key role in Indian fiscal federalism. The Commission recommends Distribution of tax revenues between Union and States, Grants-in-aid to states, Measures to improve state finances. The Finance Commission is constituted every five years or earlier if needed. Article 315 provides for the establishment of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), State Public Service Commissions (SPSC), Joint State Public Service Commissions. Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission. It conducts Elections to Lok Sabha BCW Bits: The first Finance Commission was constituted in 1951 under K. C. Neogy. The Chief Election Commissioner enjoys protections similar to a Supreme Court judge regarding removal. UPSC provisions are contained in Part XIV of the Constitution. Articles 315–323 deal with Public Service Commissions in the Constitution.
The governor of Bengal on whose orders the French established a factory at Chandannagar in 1673?
The French East India Company could reach Bengal in the last quarter of the 17th century while in 1673 a factory was established in Chandannagar with the permission of Bengal's governor Shaista Khan. By the end of the 17th century, French factories had been established in Patna, Dhaka, Kasim Bazar and Balasore. During the rebellion of Shobha Singh and Rahim Khan, the French fortified Chandannagar and named it Fort Orleans.
Judges of Patna High court address their resignation to:
According to Article 217 of the Indian Constitution, a judge of a High Court submits their resignation to the President of India. This applies to judges of all High Courts in the country, including the Patna High Court.
What is meant by ‘Rule of Law’?
Rule of law means that no man is above the law and also that every person is subject to the jurisdiction of ordinary courts of law Polity and Governance.
Who is the highest Civil Services Officer of the Central Government?
Cabinet Secretary is the highest Civil Services officer in the Central Government. Generally, he belongs to IAS. The appointee for the Cabinet Secretary is approved by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet headed by the Prime Minister. Present Cabinet Secretary of India is “Rajiv Gauba” (2022). Ranking eleventh on the Indian order of precedence. The Cabinet Secretary is under the direct charge of the Prime Minister. Article 76 has provided the office of the Attorney General (AG) of India. He is appointed by the President of India. Qualification:- Must be qualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court. Term of office of the AG is “not fixed” by the constitution. He can attend both houses but can not vote in either He held office at the pleasure of the president. AG is the Highest “ Law Officer” in the country. Present AG of India is “R Venkataramani” (16th -2022)
Which of the following rivers drains into Black Sea?
1. Danube
2. Dnieper
3. Ural
4. Don
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- The Black Sea a marginal sea of the Atlantic Ocean. It is located between Eastern Europe and Western Asia.
- The Dnieper is one of the major rivers of Europe. It rises in the Valdai Hills in Russia and flows into the Black Sea.
- The Ural river originates in the Ural Mountains, close to Mount Kruglaya in Russia. It empties into the Caspian sea.
- Don is the fifth-longest river in Europe. It rises from South Russia and drains into the black sea.
- River Danube rises in the Black Forest mountains of western Germany and drains into Black sea.
- The Dniester and the Kuban are other major rivers that drains into Black sea.
Consider the following statements regarding the Earth's atmosphere: - 1. All organisms on Earth depend on the atmosphere for survival.
2. It protects us from the harmful effects of sun rays.
3. It is the air mass that has made the Earth's temperature habitable.
How many of the above statements are true?
(Class 7, Ch 4, page 20,) Our Earth is surrounded from all sides by a dense sheet of air, which is called atmosphere. All organisms on Earth depend on the atmosphere for survival. It provides us air to breathe and protects us from the harmful effects of sun rays. If we do.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Bundelkhand Plateau is mainly spread over Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
2. Vidharbha lies on the Southern part of the Deccan Plateau.
3. The Baghelkhand plateau lies west of the Chotanagpur Plateau.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
- Bundelkhand Plateau is an ancient dissected upland, composed of Bundelkhand gneiss. It exhibits an average height of 300- 600 metres.
- Granite and gneiss hillocks define the region. Because of the erosional effects of rivers, the region is unsuitable for farming.
- The Plateau spreads around four districts in Madhya Pradesh and five districts in Uttar Pradesh. Therefore statement 1 is incorrect.
- Vidharbha lies on the northern part of the Deccan Plateau. The Satpura Range lies to the north of Vidarbha region in Madhya Pradesh. Therefore statement 2 is incorrect.
- The Baghelkhand plateau lies west of the Chotanagpur Plateau. It covers northeastern regions of Madhya Pradesh and a small area of southeastern Uttar Pradesh.
Consider the following:
1. Large body size.
2. Fixed migratory routes.
3. Feeding at higher trophic levels in the food chain.
Which of the above mentioned characteristics makes a species vulnerable to extinction?
- The characteristics of species that makes them vulnerable to extinction are:.
- Large body size: Bengal tiger, lion and elephant.
- Small population and low reproductive rate: Blue whale and Giant panda.
- Feeding at higher trophic levels in the food chain: Bengal Tiger and Bald eagle.
- Fixed migratory route and habitat: Blue whale and Whooping crane.
- Localized and narrow range of distribution: woodland caribou, many island species.
A supercritical Àuid is formed whenever:
A supercritical Àuid is a special state of matter where a substance behaves like both a liquid and a gas at the same time. It spreads like a gas but dissolves substances like a liquid. It exists beyond a certain point called the critical point. The critical temperature is the temperature above which a gas cannot be turned into liquid, no matter how much pressure you apply. It’s a key condition for forming a supercritical Àuid.
Which of the following are uses of Ozone (O3)?
- Ozone is used as oxidizing agent to oxide organic compound.
- Ozone is use at water treatment plants without filtration system.
- The bleaching action of ozone is because of its oxidation power.
- Ozone acts as strong bleaching agent; ozone has capability to provide oxygen as well as the nascent oxygen.
- This nascent oxygen is responsible for bleaching action.
Which State Government launched the State- Level Committee for Vulture Conservation (SLCVC), proposed by the national action for the protection of vultures in India?
The Government of Tamil Nadu has constituted the State-level Committee for Vulture Conservation (SLCVC) for coordination between various wings of the government to implement the Action Plan for Vulture Conservation (APVC) 2020-2025. The committee will work to establish efficient regulatory mechanisms for ban on the drugs found toxic to vultures like non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) that have been banned under the Vulture Action Plan (2020-25). The committee will also be tasked with creating more breeding grounds and rescue centers for the raptors in the state, along with regular monitoring of the vulture population in the state. It will also participate in the nation-wide vulture census and identify locations for carrying out the census and creating ‘vulture safe zones’ in the state. It will also prepare an Annual Report of Action Plan for Vulture Conservation. As many as seven of the nine species of raptors found in India are ‘critically endangered’ and ‘near threatened’, according to the International Union for Conservation of Nature Red List of Threatened Species.
When there is midnight at IST meridian, a place observes 6 A.M. The meridian on which the said place is located is
When there is midnight at IST meridian, a place observes 6:00 A.M. has to be in the east of India. It is because Sun rises early in the east. The diff erence in their meridian after 6 hours will be 15 × 6 = 90º (15º = 1 hour). Indian Standard Time (IST) is the time observed throughout India and is.
Which among the following variety of mango is a regular crop variety?
Varieties given in the options i.e., Dasheri-1, Chausa and Langra are not regular crop varieties. Dasheri-51 is a variety of Mango which is a regular crop, while other varieties of Mango which are regular crop are as follows – Bengalora (Totapuri), Neelam, Amrapali, etc.
Most of the production of Natural gas in India comes from :
A huge mass of India's natural gas production comes from the western off shore regions, particularly the Bombay High Complex. The onshore fi elds in the State of Assam, Andhra Pradesh and Gujarat are also major producers of natural gas.
The January isotherm taken as a basis for dividing India into tropical and subtropical zones is :
The January isotherm taken as the basis for dividing India into tropical and subtropical zones is 18oC. 12. India In the shaded area of the above map, the mean temperature for the month of July varies between : (a) 22.5oC-25.0oC (b) 25.0oC-27.5oC (c) 27.5oC-30.0oC (d) 30.0oC-32.5oC I.A.S. (Pre) 2001 Ans. (b) In the shaded area of the given map, the mean temperature for the month of July varies between 25oC to 27.5oC.
What does Blue Economy refer to:
The ³Blue Economy´ is a concept defined by the World Bank as the sustainable use of ocean resources for economic growth, improved livelihoods, and jobs while preserving the health of the ocean ecosystem. It encompasses fisheries, maritime transport, UHQHZDEOH energy (offshore wind), and tourism. Info Bits: India’s Vision: India’s blue economy policy is anchored in the SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region) vision, articulated by PM Narendra Modi in 2015 it envisions a safe , secure and stable maritime environment E\ positioning India as a ³net security provider´ and promote sustainable Blue economy growth. Deep Ocean Mission: Launched by the Ministry of Earth Sciences in year 2021 to explore deep-sea resources (like polymetallic nodules)
Kandala-Bhatrinda pipeline
Correct order is : Hajira-Bijapur-Jagdishpur > Kandala- Bhatrinda pipeline > Jamnagar-Loni (LPG) pipeline > Salaya-Koyali-Mathura pipeline.
Which of the following seas does not have a coastline?
Sargasso sea in the North Atlantic is bounded by the gulf stream on the west, the North Atlantic ocean on the north, the Canary current on the east, and the North Atlantic equatorial current on the south. The Sargasso Sea is a region in the middle of the North Atlantic Ocean and thus does not have a coastline. 9. The sea surrounded by Italy, Sicily, Sardinia and Corsica is – (a) Adriatic Sea (b) Aegean Sea (c) Ligurian Sea (d) Tyrrhenian Sea U.P. U.D.A./L.D.A. (Mains) 2010 Ans. (d) The Tyrrhenian Sea is situated in the region of Mediterranean Sea bounded by the island of Corsica and Sardinia, the Italian peninsula and the island of Sicily.
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect regarding the Quaternary sector?
1. It represents the highest category of decision makers who formulate policy guidelines.
2. It is often referred as ‘gold collar’ professions. JOIN PRAM IAS OFFICIAL due to high inflation in the economy B. The significant economic decline during which trade and industrial activity are reduced for successive quarters C. Reduction in tax collection of the government due to tax avoidance strategies. D. The greater tax burden increases in a progressive taxation setup 65. Which of the following constitute a part of the revenue receipts of the government of India?
1. Interest receipts on loan by the Government
2. Dividends earned by the Government on investments
3. Receipts through PSU dis-investments
4. Cash grants-in-aid from foreign countries
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Aurangzeb became the Mughal ruler in 1658, twenty years later when the state of Ahmadnagar came to an end. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
With reference to Finance Commission which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
1. Finance Commission gives recommendation about devolution of taxes between center and state.
2. The President appointed N.K. Singh as the chairman of 16th Finance Commission Chairman.
3. Recommendation submitted by Finance Commission is not binding on the Government.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
- Statement 1 is correct: Finance Commission gives recommendation about devolution of taxes between center and state.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The President appointed Shri Aravind Panagariya former vice chairman of NITI Aayog as the chairman of 16th Finance Commission Chairman.
- Statement 3 is correct: Recommendation submitted by Finance Commission is not binding on the Government.
Consider the following statements regarding the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI):
1. The National MPI was first released in 2018.
2. Cooking Fuel and Housing have the highest levels of deprivation.
3. The Global MPI is released by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
The National MPI was first released in 2021, not 2018, making Statement 1 incorrect. The discussion paper by NITI Aayog highlights that Cooking Fuel and Housing have the highest levels of deprivation, making Statement 2 correct. The Global MPI is indeed released by the UNDP and OPHI, making Statement 3 correct. Therefore, the correct answer is b) 2 and 3 only.
Among the agricultural commodities imported by In- dia, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last fi ve years?
India is known to export spices to the world. Some fruits we ship while some we export but horticultural trade is not a massive portion of the import bill. India has started importing pulses with long term contractual obligations in the past few years, but India also produces quite a large amount of pulses itself. Moreover, legumes are not very costly compared to other high-end agricultural products. Thus, logically, it should be vegetable oils. India imports a vast amount of and various types of vegetable oil from many countries. India relies on imports for almost 70% of its vegetable oil consumption. India's import bill of vegetable oil has been surging for the past many years.
Keratin is a type of protein that plays an important role in functioning of a human body. Keratin is an important component of?
1. Nails
2. Hairs
3. Tooth
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- Keratin is a family of fibrous structural proteins. It is the key structural material making up the outer (epidermis) layer of human skin.
- Keratin is the key structural component of hair, nails, hooves, horns and teeth.
- Keratin provides the necessary strength and toughness for masticatory organs, such as the tongue.
Venezuela is suffering from 'Dutch disease'. Identify the correct explanation of the above mentioned term.
- Dutch Disease in economics refers to a phenomenon wherein a country witnesses uneven growth across sectors due to the discovery of natural resources, especially large oil reserves.
- According to the concept, when a country discovers natural resources and starts exporting them to the rest of the world, it causes the exchange rate of the currency to appreciate significantly and this, in turn, discourages the exports from other sectors while encouraging the import of cheaper alternatives.
- While it most often refers to natural resource discovery, it can also refer to "any development that results in a large inflow of foreign currency, including a sharp surge in natural resource prices, foreign assistance, and foreign direct investment".
Which of the following curves describes the ‘inverse relationship between rates of unemployment and corresponding rates of inflation’?
- The Phillips curve is an economic theory that inflation and unemployment have a stable and inverse relationship. Higher inflation is associated with lower unemployment and vice versa.
- Engel's Law is an economic theory put forth in 1857 by Ernst Engel, a German statistician. It states that the percentage of income allocated for food purchases decreases as a household's income rises, while the percentage spent on other things (such as education and recreation) increases.
- Kuznets curve graphs the hypothesis that as an economy develops, market forces first increase and then decrease economic inequality. The hypothesis was first advanced by economist Simon Kuznets in the 1950s and 1960s.
- Laffer curve describes higher tax rates would increase revenue, but at some point further increases in tax rates would cause revenue to fall, for instance by discouraging people from working. The curve became the basis of supply-side economics.
Service tax was introduced in India on the recommendation of:
Service tax was introduced in India on the recommendation of Raja J. Chelliah's Committee on Tax Reforms. The committee was appointed in 1991 to lay out the agenda for reforming India’s tax system. The GST idea was first mooted in 2002 by a Task Force headed by Shri Vijay Kelkar. The Kelkar Committee is related to private investment in infrastructure (PPP model). The Yashwant Sinha Committee is related to tax reforms and GST. Yashwant Sinha is the former Finance Minister of India too. He was the Opposition candidate in the 16th presidential election.
The main focus of Smart Cities Mission in India is:
The Smart Cities Mission (launched in 2015) aims to drive economic growth and improve the quality of life, robust infrastructure, sustainable solutions by enabling local area development and harnessing technology (Smart s) to create smart outcomes for citizens. Ministry: Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). Number of Cities: 100 cities were selected to be developed as Smart Cities.
Which Arab Traveller widely described the importance of the Rashtrakutas?
Abu Sulaiman was an Arab traveller who visited the capital of Rashtrakutas in 851 CE. According to him, among four of the great empires of the world, the Rashtrakuta empire is one of them. BCW Bits Al-Masudi also known as Arab Herodotus, was an Arab historian, geographer, and explorer. He came to India during the 10th century and visited several places such as Khambhat in Gujarat, the Malabar coast, etc. He gives an extensive account of India in his work “Muruj-ul-Zahab”. He also visited the court of Indra-III, one of the greatest Rashtrakuta rulers. Mihir Bhoj was called King Baura by Masudi. Al-Biruni was bought by Mahmud Ghaznavi. He compiled a book in Arabic language called ‘Tehqiq-i-Hind’ or Kitab-ul-Hind or Tarikh-i-Hind. This book has been translated into English namely ‘Alberuni’s India’ by Edward C. Sachau. Ibn Batuta was from Morocco. In 1333 AD, he came to India in the reign of Muhammad- bin-Tughlaq, the sultan of Delhi. He wrote a book in Arabic language ‘Rihala’.
The PM Vishwakarma scheme was launched to provide end-to-end support to
The PM Vishwakarma scheme is a Central Sector Scheme launched by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) on September 17, 2023. It aims to provide holistic and end-to-end support to artisans and craftspeople who work with their hands and tools. Key Objectives: Recognition: To recognize and acknowledge artisans and craftspeople through a PM Vishwakarma certificate and ID card. opportunities through basic and advanced training programs. Financial Support: To offer financial assistance in the form of credit support, toolkit incentives, and incentives for digital transactions. Market Linkage: To connect artisans and craftspeople with markets and customers through exhibitions, e-commerce platforms, and other channels.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?
Legal tender is any official medium of payment recognized by law that can be used to extinguish a public or private debt, or meet a financial obligation. A creditor is obligated to accept legal tender toward repayment of a debt. Legal tender can only Indian Economy.
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): Assertion (A): At the highest position in a vertical circular motion, tension in the string is minimum. Reason (R): At the highest point, the tension centrifugal force í weight of body. This is the minimum value for tension throughout the motion. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
In vertical circular motion, the tension in the string is minimum at the highest point of the circle. At the highest point, both tension and weight act toward the centre and together provide the required centripetal force.
Given below are two statements: One is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Recently introduced, ‘Urea Gold’ combines urea with sulphur, minimizing wastage and enhancing plant nutrient uptake. Reason (R): Many soils in India are deficient in organic carbon macronutrients and essential micronutrients. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Assertion (A) is correct. Urea Gold is a recently introduced sulphur-coated urea fertilizer. It combines nitrogen from urea with sulphur, which helps improve nutrient e൶ciency, reduces nitrogen loss, and increases nutrient absorption by plants. Normally, a significant portion of ordinary urea gets wasted through volatilization, leaching, or runoff. By coating urea with sulphur, nutrient release becomes more gradual and e൶cient. Sulphur is itself an important plant nutrient, so the fertilizer provides dual benefits. Reason (R) is also correct. Many Indian soils suffer from deficiencies of organic carbon, nitrogen, sulphur, zinc, and other micronutrients. Continuous intensive farming, overuse of chemical fertilizers, and low organic matter have reduced soil fertility in many regions. Because of these deficiencies, fertilizers like Urea Gold are being promoted to improve nutrient use e൶ciency and soil health. The Reason also correctly explains the Assertion because the development of sulphur-coated urea is directly linked with nutrient deficiency and poor fertilizer e൶ciency in Indian agriculture. Indian soils are nutrient-deficient therefore improved fertilizers like sulphur-coated urea are introduced, to reduce wastage and improve nutrient uptake. Another important thing to understand is the difference between macronutrients, secondary nutrients, and micronutrients. For example Nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium ĺ primary macronutrients; Sulphur, calcium, magnesium ĺ secondary nutrients; Zinc, iron, boron ĺ micronutrients. BCW Bits: Urea mainly supplies nitrogen to plants. Nitrogen promotes vegetative growth in crops. Sulphur is important for protein synthesis in plants. Neem-coated urea is used to reduce misuse and improve e൶ciency. Soil Health Card Scheme was launched in 2015. Organic carbon improves soil fertility and water retention. Micronutrients are needed in small quantities but are essential for plant growth. Excessive fertilizer use can degrade soil quality over time. Balanced fertilization is important for sustainable agriculture. India is one of the largest consumers of fertilizers in the world.
Consider the following statements- 1. The electrical charges produced by rubbing are static.
2. The flow of charges is called electric current. Select the true statement-
The electric charges generated by rubbing are static. They do not move on their own. When charges move, electric current is created. The electric current flowing in the circuit due to which the bulb glows or the wire gets heated, is nothing but the flow of charges. When a plastic refill is rubbed with polythene, it acquires some electrical charge. Similarly, when a plastic comb is rubbed with dry hair, it also acquires some electrical charge. These objects are called charged objects. There are two types of charges. Homogeneous Charges- Homogeneous charges (charges of the same type) repel each other while unlike (charges of different types) attract each other.
Consider the following statements with respect to the Alaskapox disease:
1. They are zoonotic viruses that can infect various mammals, including humans.
2. It is a rhinovirus.
3. It is a double-stranded DNA virus.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 2022, marking the lowest score since the index – Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Alaskapox viruses are zoonotic, meaning they can be transmitted from animals to humans. These viruses can infect various mammals, including humans, often through direct contact with infected animals or their bodily fluids. It is a double- stranded DNA virus, meaning its genetic material consists of two complementary strands of DNA. This characteristic distinguishes it from other types of viruses, such as single-stranded DNA or RNA viruses. Statement 2 is incorrect. Alaskapox belongs to the Orthopoxvirus. Orthopoxvirus is a genus of viruses in the family Poxviridae. Vertebrates, including mammals and humans, and arthropods serve as natural hosts of this virus. Diseases caused by this virus are smallpox, cowpox, horsepox, camelpox, and monkeypox. was started in 2006, and confirming “a general trend of regression and stagnation in recent years” according to the Economist’s researchers.
- Greece was one of only four countries globally which registered an upgrade of classification, stepping up from “flawed” to “full democracy” after continuous efforts by Greek authorities to facilitate diaspora voting. With Chile on the other hand dropping down to “flawed democracy”, the total number of countries classified as “full democracies” remained the same. Papua New Guinea and Paraguay moved up from “hybrid regimes” to “flawed democracies” and Angola from “authoritarian” to “hybrid regime”.
Which among the following is a positively charged particle emitted by a radioactive element?
Alpha ray is a positively charged particle emitted by a radioactive element. Radioactivity was discovered by A.H Becquerel in 1896. In radioactivity an unstable nucleus undergoes a decay. Physics.
In which of the following nucleus is not found?
The cellular organelle nucleus was first discovered by Robert Brown before 1831. Later Fleming named the substance found in the nucleus which gets stained with alkaline color as chromatin. Some mature cells are nucleus-less, such as blood cells of mammalian organisms and sieve tube cells of vascular plants.
Which chemical is commonly used in India for making water fit for drinking at a concentration of 0.2 to 0.4 ppm?
This is the most widely used chemical for disinfecting water and making it safe for drinking. In India, chlorine is typically added to water at concentrations of 0.2 to 0.4 ppm (parts per million) to kill bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens, ensuring that the water is microbiologically safe.
In photoelectric effect, Einstein¶s equation is: E hv í ij I. ij represents work function of metal. II. The electrons will not be emitted if hv < ij. III. Increasing intensity of falling photons increases the kinetic energy of emitted electrons. Which are correct?
The given equation is Einstein's famous photoelectric equation, which explains the photoelectric effect using the quantum nature of light. Einstein's photoelectric equation is: hȞ ij + K_max, or equivalently: K_max hȞ í ij, where: h Planck's constant, Ȟ frequency of incident radiation, hȞ energy of incident photon, ij (phi) = work function of the metal, K_max maximum kinetic energy of emitted electron. This equation states that a part of the photon's energy is used to remove the electron from the metal surface, while the remaining energy appears as kinetic energy of the emitted electron. Statement I is correct. ij represents the work function of the metal ² the minimum energy required to remove an electron from the surface. Different metals have different work functions depending on how strongly electrons are bound inside them. Statement II is correct. If the energy of the incoming photon is less than the work function, electrons cannot escape from the metal surface. Mathematically: hȞ < ij No photoelectric emission. This means there exists a threshold frequency below which photoelectric emission does not occur, no matter how intense the light is. This was a major observation that classical wave theory failed to explain. Statement III is incorrect. Increasing the intensity of light increases the number of photons striking the surface, which increases the number of emitted electrons (photocurrent). However, it does not increase the kinetic energy of individual electrons. The kinetic energy of emitted electrons depends solely on the frequency of the incident light, not on its intensity. This is one of the key conclusions of Einstein's quantum theory of the photoelectric effect. BCW Bits: The threshold frequency is the minimum frequency needed for photoelectric emission. The stopping potential is used to measure the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons. Photoelectric emission is almost instantaneous after light falls on the surface. Photoelectric emission depends on frequency of light, not merely intensity. Ultraviolet light is generally more effective than visible light because of higher frequency. Photoelectric effect supports the particle nature of light. Compton effect also provided evidence for photon theory. Solar cells convert light energy into electrical energy using photoelectric principles. Metals with low work function are preferred for photoelectric devices. Quantum mechanics originated from attempts to explain black body radiation and photoelectric effect. Einstein was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1921 for explaining the photoelectric effect.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding Marasmus ?
lanation:- Marasmus is a severe form of undernutrition resulting from a deficiency in all essential macronutrients, including carbohydrates, proteins, and fats. This condition leads to noticeable wasting of fat and muscle, resulting in an emaciated appearance. In children, marasmus also causes stunted growth.
Which Is the correct relation
Density is mass per unit volume. It is described as the amount of mass an object hold within its volume; it can also be understood as how close things are packed within a space. In an element or a compound, density and volume are proportional to each other. Density= Mass/volume From the formula, it is clear that density and volume are inversely proportional to each other. So, for a fixed mass, when density increases, volume decreases, and when the volume increases, density decreases. Solids have the highest density, then liquids and gases have the least density. BCW Bits: Osmium (Atomic No.-76) is the densest metal on Earth. It was discovered by Smithson Tennant in 1803.
The smallest organism, capable of autonomous growth and reproduction, is
Mycoplasma is the smallest organism that is capable of autonomous growth and reproduction. BCW Bits: Mycoplasma is a genus of bacteria. The cell wall is absent in mycoplasma. It can survive without oxygen, and come in various shapes. The term mycoplasma was first used by Albert Bernhard Frank in 1889. Mycoplasma lacks a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles. VIRUS: A virus is a sub-microscopic infectious agent that replicates only inside the living cells of an organism. Bacteriophage: viruses that infect the bacteria, they are usually double stranded DNA viruses.
Where was the All India Conference 2024 of Director Generals and Inspectors General of Police held?
All India Conference of Director Generals and Inspectors General of Police 2024 was held in Jaipur from 5th to 7th January. The conference had a total of eight sessions covering issues like Cyber Crime, Technology in Policing, Artificial Intelligence, Counter Terrorism Challenges, Left Wing Extremism and Prison Reforms. There was an in-depth discussion on various issues.
Which of the following is not a Mendelian law of inheritance?
The three classical Mendelian laws are: 1. Law of Dominance 2. Law of Segregation 3. Law of Independent Assortment These three laws were proposed by Gregor Mendel based on his experiments on pea plants (Pisum sativum). The Law of Dominance states that when two contrasting alleles are present together, only one expresses itself in the Fၶ generation while the other remains masked. For example, in pea plants, tallness (T) is dominant over dwarfness (t). Thus: TTîttĺTt, All Fၶ offspring become tall because the dominant allele masks the recessive allele. The Law of Segregation states that the two alleles of a gene separate during gamete formation, so each gamete receives only one allele. This is Mendel's most fundamental principle and is universally valid. The segregation process can be represented as: TtĺT+t This explains why parental traits reappear in later generations. The Law of Independent Assortment states that alleles of different genes assort independently during gamete formation, provided the genes are not linked. Mendel discovered this through dihybrid crosses. For example: RrYyĺRY, Ry, rY, ry ; This law explains the generation of new combinations of traits in offspring. The term "Law of Purity of Gametes" is actually another name commonly used for the Law of Segregation, especially in older Indian school textbooks and many competitive-exam guidebooks. According to this interpretation, gametes are "pure" because they contain only one allele of a gene and not a mixture of alleles. This creates a conceptual complication. Scientifically: Law of Purity of Gametes Law of Segregation BCW Bits: Mendel is known as the ³Father of Genetics. Mendel conducted experiments on approximately 29, 000 pea plants. Pea plants were chosen because they show clear contrasting traits and self-pollination. The Fၶ generation is usually uniform due to dominance. Monohybrid crosses typically produce a 3:1 phenotypic ratio in Fၷ. Dihybrid crosses produce the famous 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio. Linked genes do not follow independent assortment completely.
The relationship between decay constant (Ȝ) and half-life (Tò) is ________.
This question shows the relationship between the half-life of a radioactive substance and its decay constant. It is one of the most important formulas in nuclear physics and radioactivity. Radioactive substances contain unstable atomic nuclei. These unstable nuclei spontaneously break down and emit radiation in the form of alpha particles, beta particles, or gamma rays. This process is called radioactive decay. The rate of radioactive decay depends on the number of undecayed nuclei present at a given time. The basic radioactive decay law is: N Nၵe^(íȜt), where: Nၵ initial number of nuclei, N number of nuclei remaining after time t, Ȝ decay constant, t time. The decay constant represents the probability of decay per unit time. A larger value of Ȝ means faster decay. Half-life is Tarkash Annual PYQ Plus BPSC Concept Wallah.
A plant cell accumulates ER-stress markers due to misfolded proteins. Which process is triggered?
The endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is the cellular factory responsible for folding and assembling proteins. Under certain conditions, such as environmental stress or metabolic imbalances, proteins may fail to fold correctly, leading to their accumulation within the ER lumen. This state is known as ER stress. To prevent the damage caused by misfolded protein accumulation, the cell activates the Unfolded Protein Response (UPR). This is a vital, highly conserved quality-control signaling pathway that acts as a damage- limitation system. The UPR functions like a crisis-management team for the cell, initiating three main strategies to restore balance: Expansion of Capacity: It increases the production of chaperone proteins, which assist other proteins in folding correctly. Translation Control: It temporarily slows down the synthesis of new proteins to prevent the ER from becoming further overwhelmed. Clearing Damage: If the stress is successfully managed, the cell resumes normal function. If the stress is too severe to fix, the UPR initiates programmed cell death (apoptosis) to prevent the accumulation of toxic proteins from harming the rest of the organism. BCW Bits: RNA interference: A gene-silencing process triggered by double-stranded RNA. GFP-induced autophagy: An artificial process used in research to degrade GFP-tagged proteins; it is not a general stress response mechanism.
Consider the following statements:
1. In 2019±20, the percentage growth rate of Bihar Gross State Domestic Product was more than the percentage growth rate of GDP of India.
2. In 2018±19, the percentage growth rate of Bihar Gross State Domestic Product was less than the percentage growth rate of GDP of India.
3. In 2023±24, as per quick estimate, the percentage growth rate of GSDP of Bihar was 9.2.
How many statements given above are correct?
Gross Domestic Product: - Total value of all goods and services produced in the whole country in one year. Gross State Domestic Product: - GSDP is the same concept but for a state. Bihar’s GSDP = Total production and services within Bihar. High growth rich state, even though Bihar sometimes.
Consider the following statements:
1. The theme of International Museum Day 2024 is “Museums for Education and Research”.
2. There are 29 museums in Bihar.
3. Bihar Museum in Patna was inaugurated in 1917.
Which of the above statements are correct?
- On 18 May 2024, International Museum Day 2024 was celebrated. This year’s theme for this day is “Museums for Education and Research”. The government of Bihar has 29 museums. Bihar Museum, Patna was inaugurated in 2015 in Patna. This museum has a vast collection of historical artefacts from the earliest of civilization up to the year 1764 and it also displays some of the finest traditional, folk, and contemporary art forms. Patna Museum was started on 3 April 1917 to house the historical artefacts found around Patna. The artefacts of the post-1764 period are kept at Patna Museum while artefacts of ancient civilizations up to the 1764 period are displayed in Bihar Museum, Patna.
- Recently, India Skills Competition 2024 was held in New Delhi in which 39 contestants from Bihar participated. Performance of Bihar in India Skills 2024 Type of Gold Silver Bronze MEDALLION Medal Total.
Consider the following statements regarding “Har Khet Tak Sinchai Ka Panni” scheme :
1. This scheme was launched by the Government of Bihar under Saat Nischay-1.
2. Under this scheme, the Government of Bihar aims to provide irrigation water to every farm by 2025.
3. Under this scheme, the state government had selected 29,952 schemes to provide irrigation water to every field.
Which of the above statements are correct?
The “Har Khet Tak Sinchai Ka Panni” scheme was launched by the Government of Bihar under Saat Nischay-2. Recently, the Development Commissioner of Bihar has asked all the departments related to this scheme to report the actual current progress of the schemes till 31st May 2024. Under this scheme, the Government of Bihar aims to provide irrigation water to every farm by 2025. Under this scheme, the state government had selected 29,952 schemes to provide irrigation water to every field.
Which of the following statements about Àoods in Bihar are correct?
1. Bihar is basically a plain area
2. Major rivers in Bihar are long with catchment in mountains
3. Bihar is economically backward Out of these:
Statement 1 is correct because Bihar is predominantly a vast alluvial plain. Most parts of the state lie in the fertile Gangetic plains with very little variation in relief. Since the land is Àat and low-lying, Àoodwater spreads easily over large areas and remains stagnant for longer. Statement 2 is also correct. Most major rivers of Bihar, such as Kosi, Gandak, Bagmati, and Kamla, originate in the Himalayas or have their catchments in the mountainous regions of Nepal and Tibet. During the monsoon season, heavy rainfall in the Himalayan catchment areas causes these rivers to carry huge volumes of water and sediments into Bihar. Since Bihar lies downstream in the plains, Àooding becomes frequent and severe. The Kosi River is often called the “Sorrow of Bihar” because of its frequent Àoods and shifting river channels. Himalayan rivers also carry large amounts of silt, which raises riverbeds over time and increases Àood risk. Statement 3 is also considered correct in the context of this question. Bihar has historically faced economic challenges, including limited industrial development, high population pressure on agriculture, and weaker infrastructure compared to many other Indian states. Economic backwardness increases Àood vulnerability because disaster management infrastructure, such as embankments and drainage systems, and rehabilitation capacity are comparatively weaker. BCW Bits: Kosi River is known as the “Sorrow of Bihar.” Most rivers of North Bihar Àow from Nepal into India. Floods are more common in North Bihar than South Bihar. Alluvial soil is highly fertile but Àood-prone. Embankments are constructed to control river Àooding. The Ganga divides Bihar into North Bihar and South Bihar. Sedimentation raises river beds and increases Àood risk. Disaster management includes mitigation, preparedness, response, and rehabilitation. Bihar is one of the most densely populated states of India. Climate change is increasing the frequency of extreme rainfall events.
Which of the following inscriptions gives information about the rules of Karnatas in Bihar?
All of the inscriptions mentioned – Simraon Pillar Inscription, Andhrathadi Pillar inscription, and Pratapmalla Inscription – provide information about the rules of the Karnatas in Bihar. These inscriptions offer valuable insights into the history, administration, and culture of the Karnata dynasty, which ruled parts of Bihar during the medieval period.
Sapna Sinha earned recognition on Forbes 30 Under 30 Asia list for her brain and cognitive sciences research. He belongs to which district?
Sapna Sinha, a native of Muzaffarpur, Bihar and MIT professor, earned recognition on Forbes 30 Under 30 Asia list for her brain and cognitive sciences research, holding a PhD from Oxford University and expertise in nanomaterials.
What is the rank of Bihar in road accidents as per the report released by the Ministry of Road transport & Highways?
As per a report of the Ministry of Road Transport & Highways, Bihar is 2nd in case of Road Accidents with a score of 82.4. Mizoram topped the list with a score of 85. The report also mentioned that 6 p.m. to 9pm is the most accident-prone time in India.
According to the recent report of Bihar State Power Building Company Limited, which state is leading in installing smart prepaid meters?
According to the latest report, a total of more than 32 lakh smart prepaid meters have been installed so far, the purpose of which is to prevent electricity theft, meter reading and remove other technical flaws. The state government aims to complete the work of installing smart prepaid meters by 2025.
The Tal Lands and Diara Plains are characteristics of which agroclimatic zone of bihar?
Bihar, covering approximately 94.2 thousand square kilometers, is divided into two regions by the River Ganges: North Bihar, which spans 53.3 thousand square kilometers, and South Bihar, with an area of 40.9 thousand square kilometers. The state’s diverse soil types, rainfall patterns, temperatures, and terrain have led to the identification of four primary agro-climatic zones. These are: Zone-I (North Alluvial Plain), Zone- II (North East Alluvial Plain), Zone-III A (South East Alluvial Plain), and Zone-III B (South West Alluvial Plain), each with its own distinctive agricultural and climatic characteristics.The Tal Lands and Diara Plains are characteristics of Zone III agroclimatic zone of Bihar.
The Department of Information and Technology in Bihar has planned the development of IT Tower, IT Park and IT City. Land has been acquired for this in:
The Department of Information and Technology in Bihar has acquired land in Bihta and Rajgir for the development of IT Tower, IT Park and IT City. This scheme has been started so that the state of Bihar can be connected to technology rapidly.
In which of the following states was the 38th National Junior Athletics championship held?
The 38th National Junior Athletics Championships 2023 was held in Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu from November 7 to 9. In the javelin throw, Kishu Singh and Virendra Yadav of Jamui set a national record. Jamui’s Kishu Singh set a national record in the javelin throw (under 14) by throwing it 60.56m. Jamui’s Virendra Yadav made a national record in the javelin throw (under 16) by throwing it 69.54m.
A leader of Bihar who left his lucrative practice during Non- the Cooperation Movement was:
Rajendra Prasad during the Non-cooperation movement, gave up his law practice and started a National College near Patna, in 1921. Bihar Special.
In which place Khudiram Bose tried to kill Kingsford?
Muzaffarpur Conspiracy Case (1908) was a revolutionary conspiracy by Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki to assassinate Kingsford, the Chief Presidency Magistrate to the Calcutta Presidency Magistrate, and later, magistrate of Muzaffarpur, Bihar. Khudiram Bose was sentenced to death for the bombing which resulted in the deaths of three- Mrs Kennedy, her daughter, and a servant. Prafulla Chaki shot himself when he was about to be arrested by the Police. Khudiram Bose got arrested and he was the youngest to be hanged by Britishers on 11th August 1908. Note:.
Who led the Quit India Movement in Patna City on 11th August 1942?
Subaltern sections (in postcolonial theory, the term subaltern is used to represent the lower social classes and the Other social groups displaced to the margins of society) of the city led the Quit India Movement in Patna city on 11th August 1942. On 11th August 1942, Anugrah Narayan Sinha was arrested which triggered Students to protest and march towards Secretariat Building and decided to hoist Tricolour Flag at the East Gate of the Secretariat which eventually lead to the Martyrdom of seven young Students.
Food crops in order of importance of area cultivated in Bihar is:
Paddy occupies the largest cultivated area in Bihar because rice is the main staple food of the state and large parts of Bihar receive su൶cient monsoon rainfall suitable for paddy cultivation. Paddy cultivation is especially dominant in north Bihar where Àoodplain soils and water availability support rice farming. Wheat comes second and is mainly grown during the Rabi season. It is widely cultivated in districts having fertile alluvial soil and better irrigation facilities. After the Green Revolution and expansion of tube-well irrigation, wheat production increased significantly in Bihar. Maize ranks third in terms of cultivated area. Bihar is one of the leading maize-producing states in India, particularly in hybrid maize cultivation. In recent years, maize has become economically important because of its use in poultry feed, starch industries, and food processing. Pulses occupy comparatively less area than the above three crops. Even though pulses are important for protein.
Bhimbandh Wildlife Sanctuary is located in
The Bhimbandh Wildlife Sanctuary was established under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, and is situated within the Kharagpur Hills of the Munger district. Geographically, it covers approximately 681 km2 and is distinguished by its unique natural hot springs, such as Rishi Kund and Sita Kund, and a dense cover of dry deciduous forests. This protected area serves as a vital ecological corridor for diverse fauna, including leopards, sloth bears, and numerous migratory bird species. In terms of broader conservation, Bihar possesses one National 3DUN and 12 Wildlife Sanctuaries. The Valmiki National Park in West Champaran is the state's sole national park and primary tiger reserve. Other significant sanctuaries include the Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary in Bhagalpur, the Kanwar Lake Bird Sanctuary (a Ramsar site) in Begusarai, and the Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary, which is currently the largest in the state by area.
Sannati Bhddhist site, recently seen in news, is located in which state?
The Sannati Buddhist site, discovered in the 1990s by ASI excavations, underwent neglect until a restoration project in 2022. Situated by the Bhima River near Kanaganahalli in Kalaburagi, Karnataka, it’s renowned for the Chandrala Parameshwari Temple. Notable findings include the Maha Stupa constructed over three phases from 3rd Century B.C. to 3rd Century A.D. and the Ranamandala area showcasing a chronological scale from prehistoric.
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GS Mock Test V | 100 MCQs with Explanations
Prepared by Brajesh Mohan (GS Sandhan)
Focused Preparation for BPSC & Bihar Competitive Examinations
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