GS Mock Test VI for BPSC & Bihar Exams: 100 MCQs with Answers & Explanations
Practice 100 General Studies MCQs with click-to-reveal answers and detailed explanations for BPSC CCE, BPSC TRE, Bihar SSC and Bihar Daroga exams. Covers History, Indian Polity, Geography, Economics, General Science and Bihar Special GK.
Subjects covered
- Indian History
- Indian Polity & Constitution
- Geography
- Indian Economy
- General Science
- Bihar History & Geography
- Bihar Economy, Polity & Culture
- Bihar Special GK
- Important General Studies Facts
Ideal for: BPSC CCE, BPSC TRE, Bihar SSC, Bihar Police / Bihar Daroga and other Bihar competitive examinations.
About this mock test
Test and improve your General Studies preparation with this comprehensive 100-question GS Mock Test designed for BPSC CCE, BPSC TRE, Bihar SSC, Bihar Daroga and other Bihar government examinations. The test covers the most important areas of General Studies, including Ancient, Medieval and Modern Indian History, Indian Polity, Geography, Indian Economy, General Science and Bihar Special GK.
Each question is followed by a click-to-reveal answer and explanation, allowing you to attempt the question independently before checking the correct answer. The explanations are designed to help you understand the underlying concept rather than simply memorising the answer.
Use this mock test to assess your preparation, identify weak areas, revise important facts and improve accuracy and speed before the examination. The questions are structured around the type of factual, conceptual and analytical questions commonly encountered in competitive examinations.
Consider the following:
1. Administrative Issues
2. Weak Succession
3. Religious and Social Factorss
4. Foreign invaders
Which of the above is/are not a reason for the decline of Mauryan Empire?
- All of the above are reason for the decline of Mauryan Empire.
- The vast size of the Mauryan Empire posed administrative challenges in terms of governance, taxation, and law enforcement.
- As the empire expanded, the effectiveness of the centralized administration started to decline.
- External invasions by foreign powers, such as the Greek- Bactrian Kingdoms and the Shunga Dynasty, posed significant challenges to the Mauryan Empire's territorial integrity and security.
- After the death of Ashoka, the third emperor of the Mauryan Empire, there was a succession of weak rulers who lacked the ability to maintain the empire's unity and stability.
- The spread of heterodox sects and religious movements, as well as social unrest and discontent among various social groups, contributed to the decline of the Mauryan Empire.
Consider the following statements in the context of the spread of Buddhism- 1. Buddhism also spread south-east to other parts of South-East Asia including Sri Lanka, Myanmar, Thailand and Indonesia.
2. The early form of Buddhism called ‘Theravada’ was more prevalent in these areas.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Fourth, people, plants and animals need water to survive. Water is found in lakes, streams and rivers. While many rivers and lakes are perennial (with water throughout the year), others are seasonal. People living on their banks would have had to go in search of water during the dry seasons (winter and summer)
Which of the following statements is correct if we compare the attitude of Ashoka and Harshavardhana towards Buddhism?
Ashoka actively promoted the spread of Buddhism through his edicts and missionary efforts, whereas Harshavardhana, though known for his religious tolerance and patronage of Buddhism and Jainism, did not actively promote the spread of Buddhism as extensively as Ashoka did.
The theme for India's G20 Presidency was "Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam". It is a Sanskrit phrase found in which of the following Hindu texts ?
- Maha Upanishad provides the concept of Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam which means "The World Is One Family". The idea of the phrase remains relevant today as it emphasises a global perspective, prioritising the collective well-being over individual or family interests.
- It encourages thinking about the welfare of others, fostering global solidarity and responsibility, especially in addressing crucial issues like climate change, sustainable development, peace, and tolerance of differences.
In Jainism, what is the difference between Tirthankara and Nirgranth?
Jain founders are called Tirthankara while Jain Mahatmas are called Nirgrantha. Jainism is an ancient religion that is rooted in the philosophy that teaches the way to liberation and a path to spiritual purity. The word Jain is derived from Jina or Jaina which means Conqueror. There are a total of 24 Tirthankara in Jainism, Rishabhdev was the First and Lord Mahavira was the last.
Astrology
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Charaka, born about 300 BC, was the court physician of the famous king Kanishka of Kushan Empire. He is the renowned author of the oldest surviving text in Ayurveda, the Charaka Samhita. He is regarded as the father of Ayurveda, or Ayurvedic medicine. Charaka Samhita, a treatise on medication describes a wide range of ailments and explains their treatment. Brahmagupta (AD 628) was the first mathematician to provide the formula.
Phanigiri Buddhist site, recently seen in news, is located in which state?
The Department of Archaeology and Museums discovered a coin hoard at Phanigiri site in Suryapet district, Telangana, from the Ikshvaku period. Phanigiri, meaning “hillock of snake hood,” is a Buddhist site approximately.
The only pillar where Ashoka referred to himself as the emperor of Magadha is:
The Minor Rock Edict of Maski is the pillar in which Ashoka has declared himself as the emperor of Magadha. The Minor Rock Edict of Maski is a small village in Raichur village of Karnataka. An inscription was found here during archaeological excavation in which Ashoka has declared himself as the emperor of Magadha. This is called the Minor Rock Edict of Maski. This place named Maski is situated on the banks of the Maski River. Maski River is a tributary of the Tungabhadra River.
Who of the following had first deciphered the edicts of Emperor Ashoka?
James Prinsep (20 August 1799 – 22 April 1840) was an English scholar, orientalist, and antiquary who was the founding editor of the Journal of the Asiatic Society of Bengal and worked as an assay master at Benaras Mint and later on at the Calcutta mint. He is credited with several achievements in a small lifetime of 40 years. These include the following: In Benares, he made careful drawings and evocative watercolors illustrating temples, ghats, and daily life scenes. He created two copies of an enormous map, one for the administration in Roman script and one for the locals in Devanagari, which plotted every building in the city. He also built a tunnel to drain a marsh on the edge of town responsible for periodic disease outbreaks. He repaired the minarets of the Alamgir mosque and also built a bridge on the Karmanasa River. He interpreted coins from Bactria and Kushan along with the punch-marked coins from the Gupta era. He suggested that there were three stages in the evolution of coins viz. the punch-marked, the die-struck, and the cast coins. His most famous achievement is the decoding of the Brahmi script on the Ashokan pillars in 1837 which Referred to a King called Devanampiya Piyadassi. The Brahmi inscriptions on pillars and rocks were in the Prakrit language, a vernacular tongue rooted in Sanskrit. He also decoded the Kharosthi script on Ashoka’s pillars which appeared in the far northwest of his empire. The same script appeared in coins from regions in modern Pakistan and Afghanistan, sometimes paired with legible Greek. He is also known as the Father of Indian Epigraphy.
Which of the following were the reasons for the success of Babur in Panipat War
1. Scientific Combination of Cavalry and Artillery
2. Ill-treatment of Ibrahim Lodi Towards his allies
3. Disciplined Army
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Following were the reason for Babar's success in war of Panipat: 1. Scientific Combination of Cavalry and Artillery 2. Treatment of Ibrahim Lodi Towards his army 3. Disciplined Army 4. Babur's Personality.
Consider the following : Assertion (A): Akbar was the first among the Mughal emperors who planned to conquer the Deccan. Reason (R): His primary objective in conquering the Deccan was the extension of the empire.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- Akbar was the first among the Mughal emperors who planned to conquer the Deccan after completing his conquest in the North. His primary objective in conquering the Deccan was the extension of the empire.
- Besides, Akbar was not happy with the Portuguese, who were becoming powerful on the sea-coast of India. He desired to break up their power which could be possible by conquering the Deccan.
The journey of newspaper began in India with the publication of ‘The Bengal Gazette’ by James Augustus Hickey in 1780 AD. Which of the following was one of the earliest English News paper published by Indians ?
- The Hindoo Patriot was launched in 1853 under the editorship of Girish Chandra Ghosh, and by 1855 Harish Chandra Mukherjee had assumed the editorship of the journal.
- The Hindu Patriot was especially renowned for its brave criticism of the colonial rulers during the period of the First War of Independence.
- Hindoo Patriot was the first newspaper published by Indians in English. It was published from Calcutta.
Captain William Hawkins, a representative of East India company visited the court of which Mughal emperor?
- William Hawkins was a representative of the English East India Company. He was the commander of Hector, the first company ship to anchor at Surat in India on 24 August 1608. Hawkins was an envoy in the court of the Mughal Emperor Jahangir for two years.
- In 1615, The East India Company persuaded King James to send Thomas Roe as a royal envoy to the Agra court of the Great Mughal Emperor, Jahangir. He resided at Agra for four years, until 1619.
Soothsaying
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Fernao Nuniz, the Portuguese traveller, visited the Vijaynagar Empire around 1536-37 during the reign of Achyuta Deva Raya. According to Nuniz, a large number of women were employed in royal palaces as dancers, domestic servants and palanquin bearers. There were also wrestlers, astrologers and soothsayers among them. Some women were also appointed as accountants, judges, bailiffs, and watch women. BCW Bits: Vijayanagara or “city of victory” was the name of both a city and an empire. The empire was founded in the fourteenth century. In its heyday, it stretched from the river Krishna in the north to the extreme south of the peninsula. Two brothers, Harihara and Bukka, founded the Vijayanagara Empire in 1336. Four Dynasties ruled under this empire. (i) Sangama dynasty (1336-1485). (ii) Saluva dynasty (1485-1505), (iii) Tuluva dynasty (1505-1570) and (vi) Aravidu dynasty (1570- 1650). Krishnadeva Raya (ruled 1509-29) of Tuluva dynasty is considered the most influential ruler of this empire. Nicolo Conti, an Italian, was at Vijayanagara in about 1420, just after the accession of Devaraya I. The first known foreign traveller, he mentions the fortifications of the city and the thousands of men employed in the army of the rulers. Abdul Razzaq from Persia visited Vijayanagar in about 1443 during the reign of Devaraya II. He wrote his travels in the “Matla-us-Sadain wa Majma-ul- Bahrain”, or The Rise of Two Auspicious Constellations and the Confluence of Two Oceans. Ancient History.
In the Battle of Chausa, into which river did Humayun jump?
On 26 June 1539, Sher Shah Suri’s army defeated the Mughal forces led by Emperor Humayun in the Battle of Chausa. To escape, Humayun jumped into the Ganges River and managed to save his life.
Who was defeated by Akbar in the Battle of Rajmahal?
lanation:- In the Battle of Rajmahal, Daud Khan Karrani was defeated by Akbar’s forces in 1576. Daud Khan Karrani was the last ruler of the Karrani dynasty, which ruled Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa. The battle marked the end of the independent rule of Bengal, as Daud Khan Karrani was defeated and executed, leading to the incorporation of Bengal into the Mughal Empire. This victory helped Akbar further consolidate his control over the eastern regions of India.
In which language was Tuzuk-i-Baburi’ written?
Tuzuk-i-Baburi (also known as Baburanamah) is the autobiography of Babur, the founder of the Mughal empire in India. It is written in the Chagatai language, an extinct Turkish literary language. The book is important because it records the events of his remarkable life from the age of 12 until he died in 1530 and covers not just his own life, but diverse topics such as astronomy, geography, statecraft, military matters, weapons and battles, plants and animals, biographies and family chronicles, courtiers and artists, poetry, music and paintings, wine parties, historical monument tours as well as contemplations on human nature. Baburnama was later translated into Persian during the reign of Emperor Akbar by Abdul Rahim Khan-i-Khanan. Babur and Jahangir were the two great Mughal Emperors who wrote their Autobiography. The name of the autobiography of Jahangir was Jahangirnama.
Consider the following statements regarding Mysore Kingdom after the death of Tipu Sultan:
1. The English took possession of Kanara, Wayanad, Coimbatore, Dwaraporam, and Seringapatam.
2. Krishnaraja III, a minor prince of the old Hindu Wodeyar dynasty, was given control of the new state of Mysore.
3. William Bentinck took control of Mysore on grounds of misgovernance in 1831.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
All the statement are correct: Statement 1 is correct:After the fourth Anglo Mysore warThe British took control of Kanara, Wayanad, Coimbatore, Dwaraporam, and Seringapatam. Statement 2 is correct:The newly established state of Mysore was returned to the Wodeyar dynasty, with the young Krishnaraja III as its ruler, who agreed to a subsidiary alliance. Statement 3 is correct:For several years, relations between the British and Mysore remained cordial. However, in the late 1820s, a civil insurrection erupted in Mysore, caused either by the financial oppression of the British Resident or the misgovernment and heavy taxation by the Maharaja.These events prompted the British to assume direct control over Mysore in 1831. This arrangement lasted until 1881, when Mysore was returned to native governance and the rightful heir was enthroned.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Simon Commission of 1927:
1. It was meant to suggest further constitutional reforms in India.
2. It recommended Indigenization of Indian Army.
3. The Muslim League and the Hindu Maha Sabha sup- ported the commission.
Which of the above statements are correct?
- The Government of India Act; 1919 had provided that a Royal Commission would be appointed ten years after the commencement of the Act to report on its working and recommend further constitutional reforms in India.
- In November 1927, the Indian Statutory Commission i.e. Simon Commission was appointed which submitted its report in 1930.
- One of the recommendations of Simon Commission was indigenization of Indian army while retaining the British forces.
- But by the time the report came out, it was no longer relevant because several events overtook the importance of its recommendations.
- The commission was boycotted by almost all political groups (except the Justice Party in Madras and the Union Party in Punjab) since it did not had any Indian member.
- Along with Congress, the Muslim League and the Hindu Maha sabha also boycotted the commission.
Which of the following leaders died before India attained its independence in 1947?
1. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
2. Lala Lajpat Rai
3. Aruna Asaf Ali
4. Dada Bhai Naoroji
Select the correct answer using the codes given below?
- Dadabhai Naoroji Dadabhai often called the “Grand Old Man of India,” was a prominent Indian nationalist, social reformer who died in 1917.
- Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak, known as the ‘Father of Indian Unrest’ died of cardiac arrest in 1920 at Bombay.
- Lala Lajpat Rai popularly known as Punjab Kesari died in 1928 at Lahore.
- Aruna Asaf Ali rose to prominence during the Quit India movement. She was elected the first Mayor of Delhi in 1958. She received Bharata Ratna (Posthumous) in 1996. She died in New Delhi in 1996 at the age of 87.
The forensic analysis of the 282 skeletons unearthed from an abandoned well in Ajnala, Punjab, in 2014, primarily confirmed their identity as Indian soldiers from the 1857 Sepoy Mutiny through which key combined evidence?
The discovery of 282 skeletons in an abandoned well at Ajnala, Punjab, in 2014, sparked significant investigation. Initially, there was debate about whether these remains belonged to victims of the 1947 Partition or soldiers from the 1857 Indian Rebellion. Forensic scientific methods were required to establish the timeline and the geographic origin of the individuals. Genetic Evidence (mtDNA): Researchers performed mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) analysis to identify the maternal lineages of the individuals. The haplogroups identified were consistent with populations from North India, particularly those from the Gangetic plain (the region including present-day Uttar Pradesh and Bihar). This was crucial because the 26th Native Bengal Infantry²the unit associated with the 1857 mutiny²was largely recruited from these areas. Isotopic Evidence (Strontium): Strontium isotope analysis (87Sr/86 Sr ratios) is used to track the geographic origin of an individual based on the soil and water they consumed during their childhood (as these minerals are stored in tooth enamel). The ratios found in the teeth of the skeletons matched the geological profile of the Gangetic plain, not the local region of Punjab. This confirmed that Tarkash Annual PYQ Plus BPSC Concept Wallah.
Who called the Directive Principles of State Policy a ‘charter of social and economic democracy of India’?
Dr.B.R Ambedkar called the Directive Principles of State Policy a ‘charter of social and economic democracy of India’.
Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
The Portuguese were defeated by the British in the naval Battle of Swally, which took place on 29–30 November 1612. 1503 - Establishment of the first Portuguese fort at Cochin 1530 - Declaration of Goa as the Portuguese capital 1535 - Subjugation of Diu 1559 - The Portuguese captured Daman 1612 - Loss of Surat to the English by Portuguese.
In context of the swadeshi movement, which of the following newspapers published from Calcutta echoed the moderate arguments?
- During the Swadeshi movement, the press was used as an important tool by the revolutionaries to spread the nationalist message.
- The newspapers like Amrita Bazar Patrika, Bengalee, Daily Hitvadi and Bangabasi echoed the moderate arguments.
- The extremists established their own newspapers like New India, Yugantar and Bande Mataram which were published from Kolkata.
- Since August 1901 New India, edited by Bipin Chandra Pal, was the only English medium newspaper voicing the extremists’ opinions.
- It was only in August 1906 that Bande Mataram emerged as one of the most popular journals of the extremists.
- The Bande Mataram boldly carried news of labour unrest and political movements not just in India but also in Britain.
Who first painted the famous image of Mother India in the form of a Sanyasini?
Tagore Class10/Chapter2/Page47 The identity of a nation is most often captured in a picture. This helps people to create an image through which they can identify the nation. With the development of nationalism in the twentieth century, India's identity also started taking the form of the image of Mother India. The creation of this image was initiated by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay. In the 1870s, he wrote the song 'Vande Mataram' as a praise for the motherland. Later he included it in his novel Anandmath. This song was sung extensively during the Swadeshi movement in Bengal. Inspired by the Swadeshi movement, Abanindranath Tagore painted the famous image of Mother India. In this painting, Mother India has been depicted as a Sanyasini. She appears calm, serious, full of divine and spiritual qualities. Later, when this image started being depicted in pictures on a large scale and different artists started making these pictures, the image of Mother India started taking various forms. Reverence towards this maternal image came to be considered a symbol of faith in nationalism.
When did the revolt of 1857 take place in patna?
William Tayler, an official of the East India Company, held several administrative positions in India between 1829 and 1859. He served as the Commissioner of the Patna Division from 1855 to 1857. During his tenure, there was an uprising on July 3, 1857, in Patna, which was led by the bookseller Pir Ali.
The famous Battle of Wandiwash in 1760 was fought by the British against whom?
The famous Battle of Wandiwash (in Tamil Nadu) in 1760 was fought between the Britishers and the French. The Britishers won the battle. The French army was led by Comte de Lally and Sir Eyre Coote commanded the British army. BCW Bits:: The Battle of Wandiwash(22 January 1760) was the decisive battle in the Anglo- French struggle in southern India during the Seven Years’ War (1756–63). This battle established Britain as the paramount European power in India.
Who was given life punishment for the murder of Colonel Wyllie?
Madan Lal Dhingra was given a life sentence for the murder of Colonel Wyllie who was adviser to the Secretary of State to India. He was a part of the Home Rule Society, India House, and The Abhinav Bharat Society in London. On 1 July 1909, at the meeting of the National Indian Association (an organization of Indian loyalists) he shot Curzon Wyllie dead. He fired 5 bullets, out of which 4 hit the target. Madan Lal Dhingra shot him to penalize the advisor who used to assist the Secretary of State whose policies led to the exploitation of Mother India. He did not attempt to escape and during the course of hearing of the case, he asked for a death sentence. He was hanged in London on 17 August 1909.
Sachindananda Sinha was associated with which movement?
In his early years, Sinha was a member of the Indian National Congress, from 1899 till 1920, serving one term as secretary. He participated in the Home Rule League Movement. He was one of the vice-chancellors of Patna University and held the post from 1936 to 1944. He built the Sinha Library in 1924 in memory of his wife, Radhika. He was a member of the Imperial Legislative Council from 1910 to 1920 and the Indian Legislative Assembly. He was Deputy President of the Assembly in 1921. He also held the office of the President in the Bihar and Orissa Legislative Council. He was appointed Executive Councillor and Finance Member of the Government of Bihar and Orissa, and, thus, was the first Indian who was ever appointed as a Finance Member of a Province. Later, he also was a member of the Bihar Legislative Assembly.
With reference to Judicial Review which of the following statements is/are correct–
1. The doctrine of judicial review originated and developed in UK 2. The word Judicial review has nowhere been used in the constitution
3. The power of judicial review cannot be curtailed or excluded even by a constitutional amendment.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
- Statement 1 is incorrect. The doctrine of judicial review originated and developed in the USA. It was propounded for the first time in the famous case of Marbury versus Madison (1803) by John Marshall, the then chief justice of the American Supreme Court.
- Statement 2 is correct. The word Judicial review has nowhere been used in the constitution.
- Statement 3 is correct. In India, on the other hand, the Constitution itself confers the power of judicial review on the judiciary (both the Supreme Court as well as High Courts). Further, the Supreme Court has declared the power of judicial review as a basic feature of the Constitution or an element of the basic structure of the Constitution. Hence, the power of judicial review cannot be curtailed or excluded even by a constitutional amendment.
Consider the following statements about Writ Petition of ‘Quo Warranto’ filed in the High Court of a State:
1. It is issued to enquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office.
2. It cannot be filed by one who is not an aggrieved person.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Quo Warranto is a judicial order asking a person, who occupies public office, to show by what authority she/ he holds the office. If it is found that the holder of the office has no valid title, then this writ is issued to him to oust from the office. The writ is issued to the person ousting him from holding a public post to which he has no right. Accordingly, the use of the writ is made in cases of usurpation of a public office and removal of such usurper. Conversely, it protects citizens from being deprived of public office to which they may have a right. A petition for the writ of Quo Warranto can be filed by any person though he is not an aggrieved person (Traditional rule of ‘locus — standi’: According to this rule, only that person whose rights are infringed alone can move the court for the remedies)
With reference to the Directive Principles of State Policy which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IVA of the Constitution
2. The Constitution classifies Directive Principles into three broad categories they are Socialistic, Gandhian Principles and Liberal Intellectual Principles
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
- Statement 1 is incorrect. The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution does not contain any classification of Directive Principles. However, on the basis of their content and direction, they can be classified into three broad categories, viz, socialistic, Gandhian and liberal-intellectual.
The Constitution of India confers the power of judicial review on:
³Judicial Review´ is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution of India. The power is derived from several articles: Article 13: Declares that all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of the Fundamental Rights shall be void. Supreme Court: Under Article 32, the Supreme Court can be approached for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. It can also review the constitutionality of any law under Articles 131–136. High Courts: Under Article 226, High Courts have the power to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for “any other purpose.” Their power of judicial review is actually broader in scope than that of the Supreme Court because of the phrase “any other purpose.”.
Which one of the following is not a part of the Directive Principles given in Article 39 of the Indian Constitution?
All are part of Article 39 except Raising the level of nutrition of the people and improvement of their health is not a part of Directive Principles given in Article 39 of the Indian Constitution, it is actually part of Article 47. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new directive principles—Article 39, 39A, 43A, and 48A. Article 39 of the Constitution Art 39. Certain principles of policy to be followed by the State: The State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing (a) that the citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means to livelihood; (b) that the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good; (c) that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment; (d) that there is equal pay for equal work for both men and women; (e) that the health and strength of workers, men and women, and the tender age of children are not abused and that citizens are not forced by economic necessity to enter a vocations unsuited to their age or strength; (f) that children are given opportunities and facilities to develop in a healthy manner and in conditions of freedom and dignity and that childhood and youth are protected against exploitation and against moral and material abandonment.
Which Article of the Constitution provides that no person accused of any offence can be compelled to be a witness against himself?
Article 20 [Specifically Article 20(3)] of the Indian Constitution establishes the Right against Self- Incrimination. It explicitly states that "No person accused of any oৼence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself." This fundamental safeguard guarantees that an accused individual cannot be forced to give oral or documentary testimony that could establish their own guilt. Article 20 – Protection in criminal cases.
Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word - _____ belief prevent us from looking at people as unique individuals.
The head of the state is called 'Governor'. He is appointed by the Central Government to ensure that the State Government runs its affairs as per the rules and regulations of the Constitution. Stereotypes – When we start believing that people.
Article 169 of the Constitution provides for the establishment of a Legislative Council for the State. At present there are six states having legislative council besides legislative assembly. Which of the following states do not have a legislative council?
- Article 169 provides for Abolition or creation of Legislative Councils in States. At present only 6 out of 28 states have a Legislative Council.
- These are Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Telangana, Maharashtra, Bihar, and Uttar Pradesh. No union territory has a legislative council.
- The members of legislative council should be of at least 30 years of age.
- The tenure of a member is of 6 years and One-third of the members of State Legislative Council retire after every two years.
On which date is National Voters' Day celebrated?
Ambedkar prepared a draft constitution for discussion. Each section of the draft Constitution How did your school celebrate National Voters' was discussed in several rounds. More than two thousand amendments were considered. A total of 114 days of serious discussions took place over.
The inspiration for ‘Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity was derived from
The ideals of Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity enshrined in the Preamble of the constitution of India were adopted under inspiration from the French Revolution.
Which among the following was not proposed by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment in Panchayati Raj?
- The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act added a new Part-IX to the Constitution of India. This part is entitled 'The Panchayats' and consists of provisions from Articles 243 to 243 O. The Act has also added a new Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution.
- This schedule contains 29 functional items of the panchayats. It deals with Article 243-G. As per provisions contained in Article 243 D of the Indian Constitution, 1/3rd of the Seats of Panchayati Raj Institutions and 1/3rd of the seats for the Chairperson's offices at all Panchayati levels Raj Institutions covered by Part IX of the Constitution are reserved for women. So, Option (a) and, Option (d) is not correct.
- The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act proposed mandatory reservation in all elected rural local bodies for SC/ST candidates at all levels. So, Option (b) is not correct.
- 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act did not propose the mandatory reservation in all elected rural local bodies for OBC candidates at all levels, but this Amendment Act gives discretionary power of the state. So, Option (c) is correct.
Who among the following worked as Finance Minister of India for the longest period?
Palaniappan Chidambaram is an Indian politician and lawyer who currently serves as a member of Parliament, Rajya Sabha. Chidambaram has served as the Union minister of finance four times.
What is the theme of ‘International Day of Action for Rivers 2024’?
stranded in war-torn Haiti amid the intense fighting between the armed groups and the government.
Consider the following statements- 1. Humid temperate tropical forests are found in areas at altitudes ranging from 1,000 m to 2,000 m.
2. Coniferous trees are found between the altitude of 1,500 to 3,000 meters.
3. Alpine vegetation is found at altitudes above 3,600 m.
4. Lichen grass is found in higher altitude areas.
How many of the above statements are correct?
In mountainous areas, along with the lack of temperature and altitude, there is also a difference in the natural vegetation. The same type of difference in vegetation that we see from tropical regions to tundra is also seen in mountainous regions with altitude. Humid temperate tropical forests are found in areas at altitudes ranging from 1,000 m to 2,000 m. Among these, trees like broad leaf oak and chestnut predominate. Coniferous trees like pine, deodar, silver-fir, spruce, cedar etc. are found between the altitude of 1,500 to 3,000 m. These forests are usually found on the southern slopes of the Himalayas and in the higher altitude parts of South and North-East India. Temperate grasslands are often found at higher altitudes. Often at altitudes above 3,600 m, temperate forests and grasslands are replaced by alpine vegetation. Silver- fir, juniper, pine and birch are the main trees of these forests. As we approach the snow line, the size of these trees becomes smaller. Eventually after the shrubs form they merge into alpine meadows. They are used for cattle grazing by nomadic castes like Gujjar and Bakkarwal. In the higher altitude areas there is moss, lichen grass and a portion of tundra vegetation.
Which of the following statements are correct for the latitudes and longitudes?
1. All latitudes are of equal length.
2. All Longitudes are of equal length.
3. The 0° longitude is the Prime Meridian
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- All parallel circles from the equator up to the poles are called parallels of latitudes. Latitudes are measured in degrees.
- The equator represents the zero degree latitude.
- The 90 degrees north latitude marks the North Pole and 90 degrees south latitude marks the South Pole.
- The length of latitude decreases as we move from equator towards poles.
- Longitudes are imaginary vertical lines across the planet earth.
- Unlike parallels of latitude, all meridians or longitudes are of equal length. Therefore statement 2 is not correct.
- Thus, it was difficult to number the meridians. Hence, all countries decided that the count should begin from the meridian which passed through Greenwich, where the British Royal Observatory is located.
- This meridian is called the Prime Meridian. Its value is 0° longitude and from it we count 180° eastward as well as 180° westward.
- The Prime Meridian and 180° meridian divide the earth into two equal halves, the Eastern Hemisphere and the Western Hemisphere.
Consider the following statements.
1. The recent caste census of Bihar was conducted in more than 3 phases.
2. The last caste census was conducted in 1931.
3. The Caste census of 2011 did not collect caste based data.
Which of the above mentioned statements is/are correct ?
- The recent caste census of Bihar was conducted in 2 phases:.
- The survey's first phase, which involved counting the total number of households in Bihar.
- The second and final phase collected data on people from all castes, religions and economic backgrounds.
- Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
- The last caste census was conducted in 1931. The census of 2011 collected the caste based data but didn't make it public.
- Therefore, statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is incorrect.
Which of the following factors affect the distribution of temperature of ocean water?
1. Latitude
2. Unequal distribution of land and water
3. Prevailing wind
4. Ocean Current
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- The following factors affect the distribution of temperature of ocean water:.
- Latitude: the temperature of surface water decreases from the equator towards the poles as the amount of insolation decreases pole-wards.
- Unequal distribution of land and water.
- Prevailing wind: the winds blowing from the land towards the oceans drive warm surface water away from the coast resulting in the upwelling of cold water from below. It results into the longitudinal variation in the temperature. C.
- Warm ocean currents raise the temperature in cold areas while the cold currents decrease the temperature in warm ocean areas.
A protected area is species oriented; its boundaries are not marked by legislation; tourism is allowed in the protected area. The protected area described here is?
- A Wildlife sanctuary is a species oriented area as Pitcher plant, Great Indian Bustard etc. Its boundaries are not sacrosanct ie not marked by legislation as in the case of a National Park.
- Limited disturbance is allowed in the area and tourism is allowed inside a sanctuary. However it lacks scientific management and no attention is paid to gene pool.
The second scientifi c research station of India on the Antarctica continent called 'MAITRI' was established in 1988. The main task of this research centre is –
According to the offi cial website of National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research, Maitri is dedicated to conducting researches on diverse disciplines including earth science, glaciology, atmospheric science, communication, medicine, human physiology and cold region engineering.
Which of the following is not correctly matched? Desert Country
Gibson desert, an interim Australian bioregion, is a large desert that covers a large dry area in the State of Western Australia not in Brazil. Other options are correctly matched.
Each integer reading of the Richter scale has an energy 100 times than the previous integer reading. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
The magnitud of the earthquake is measured on the Richter scale and intensity on Mercalli scale. In 1935, seismologist Charles Francis Richter of the California Institute of Technology developed the Richter magnitude scale. It is based on a logarithmic scale which is mentioned as 1-10 on the scale. Each number of seismograph represents 10 times amplitude, 32 times energy. A seismic wave of intensity 1 releases the energy of 6 ounces of TNT. Hence statement (1) is correct while statement (2) is wrong.
As a result of global warming the frequency and severity of which of the following are increasing due to global warming?
According to IPCC Global Warming will result in melting of glaciers, increase in the level of seawater, fl oods and droughts will become more severe; the intensity of storms will increase etc.
The correct ascending order of the following countries in terms of area is :
The correct sequence of the countries in ascending order of their area is as follows- Country Total Area (in Sq. km) Argentina - 27,80,400 India - 32,87,263 Australia - 76,88,287 Brazil - 85,15,767.
Rajasthan is the chief producer of –
When the question was asked only option (b) was correct. According to the data for the year 2020-21 (4th A.E.), Rajasthan is the chief producer of Rapeseed and Mustard.
Who among the following is against the Sardar Sarovar Project?
Medha Patekar is a social activist who has led the struggle for people aff ected by the Sardar Sarovar Project on the Narmada river in Gujarat, India. She founded the Narmada Bachao Andolan. Thus, option (d) is the correct answer.
The Pampas, Veld, Downs and Prairies are grasslands found in?
- The Prairies are flat, fertile lands dominated by grasses in the Mississippi River valley in America and Canada.
- The Pampas are fertile South American low grasslands.
- The Velds are the temperate grasslands of South Africa.
- Downs is a pastoral and agricultural region in southeastern Queensland, Australia.
- All the above mentioned Grasslands are found in the Temperate Continental or Steppe Climate.
Which one of the following tribes of India belongs to the Proto-Australoid race:
Tribes like Santhal, Bhil, Yeruva etc which forms the population of South India, belongs to pre-Dravidian or Proto- Australoid race.
With respect to revenue deficit, which of the following statements is/are true?
1. Revenue deficit always increases when revenue expenditures increase.
2. An increase in revenue deficit leads to an increase in borrowings to fulfill consumption requirements.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- Statement 1 is incorrect. While an increase in revenue expenditure might contribute to a rise in revenue deficit, it does not necessarily guarantee its increase. This is because an equal or greater increase in revenue receipts could offset the rise in expenditure, leading to a reduced or unchanged revenue deficit.
- Statement 2 is correct. Governments often resort to increased borrowing to cover their consumption expenditure, which may result in reduced allocation for investment and growth initiatives.
- Revenue deficit represents the disparity between revenue expenditure and revenue receipts during a financial year. It highlights the shortfall in current revenue compared to current expenditure, indicating the extent to which the government relies on borrowing to meet its day-to-day operational expenses, excluding capital investments such as infrastructure development.
Which was included in the goals of the five year plans launched in India?
1. Growth
2. Modernization
3. Self-reliance
4. Equality
Select the correct answer using the code:-
A plan should have clearly specified objectives. The goals of the five year plans were: growth, modernization, self-reliance and equality. This does not mean that these goals have been given equal importance in every plan. Due to limited resources, in each plan such goals have to be selected which are to be given priority. Yes, planners have to ensure that as far as possible there is no conflict among the four objectives. In a capitalist economy, the goods produced are not distributed among different people according to their needs. Most of the segmentation is based on the purchasing power of individuals and what goods and services they are able to purchase. As a result, production and supply of this commodity cannot be according to market power.
Consider the following statements regarding Mediterranean agriculture- 1. The Mediterranean region is important in supplying citrus fruits.
2. High quality wines are produced from low quality grapes grown in the Mediterranean region.
3. During the summer season, when there is demand for fruits and vegetables in Europe and the United States, they are fulfilled from this region.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
Similar polymorphism is found in DNA obtained from different tissues of any person (e.g. blood, hair follicle, skin, bone, saliva, sperm etc.) which is useful as an identification tool in forensic use. Since polymorphism is inherited from parents to children. Therefore DNA fingerprinting is helpful in paternity testing in case of dispute.
Which of the following happened earliest in the process of state reorganization after independence?
- S K Dhar Commission: There has been a demand from different regions, particularly South India, for Commission created a lot of resentment and led to the appointment of another Linguistic Provinces Committee by the Congress in December 1948, to examine the whole question again. It consisted of Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallahbhai Patel and Pattabhi Sitaramayya and hence, was popularly known as the JVP Committee. It submitted its report in April 1949 and formally rejected language as the basis for the reorganization of states.
- Fazl Ali Commission: The creation of the Andhra state in 1953 intensified the demand from other regions for the creation of states on a linguistic basis. This forced the Government of India to appoint (in December 1953) a three-member States Reorganisation Commission under the chairmanship of Fazl Ali to re-examine the question. Its other two members were K M Panikkar and H N Kunzru.
During the Salt Satyagraha in Bihar, In addition to making salt, the people choose to oppose the government by opposing which tax?
During Salt Satyagraha, people choose to oppose the government by opposing Chowkidari Tax. For more detail on salt law. Refer to question no. 61.
How many times does the Reserve Bank of India review the Monetary Policy in a financial year? Indian Economy 639
The MPC determines the policy repo rate required to achieve the inflation target. It usually meets once in 2 months and is mandated to meet at least 4 times a year and it publishes its decisions after each such meeting. The quorum for the meeting of the MPC is four members. Each member of the MPC has one vote, and in the event of an equality of votes, the Governor has a second or casting vote. MPC is a statutory body under section 45ZB of the RBI Act and is headed by RBI Governor. In total, it has 6 members. The important objective of MPC is to keep inflation within (4±2) %
Among the four options given below, find the option which is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. UK : Pound : Japan : ?
Just as the currency of the UK is Pound, similarly the currency of Japan is Yen.
The Global Gender Gap Report is released by
The Global Gender Gap Report is an annual report of the World Economic Forum that benchmarks the current state and evolution of gender parity across four key dimensions:.
Neolithic site Chirandh is situated on the bank of which river?
The Neolithic site of Chirandh is situated on the bank of the Ganga river.
Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called
Hot currency signifies currency that quickly and regularly moves between financial markets, which ensures investors lock in the highest available short-term interest rates. Hot money continuously shifts from countries with low- interest rates to those with higher rates.
Which of the following rulers merged Avanti in the Magadha Empire after the victory?
Among the sixteen Mahajanapadas, Magadha gradually became the most powerful. Its rise was not sudden. Several rulers from different dynasties expanded the kingdom through wars, diplomacy, marriage alliances, and annexation of neighboring states. The kingdom of Avanti was one of the strongest rivals of Magadha. Avanti was located in western-central India with Ujjain as an important center. It was politically and commercially significant because it controlled trade routes connecting northern and western India.The ruler who finally defeated Avanti and merged it into the Magadhan Empire was Shishunaga. This victory was extremely important because after the annexation of Avanti, Magadha became almost supreme in northern India. One of its biggest rivals disappeared, and Magadha’s political dominance became much stronger. Kalashoka, was the successor of Shishunaga and is mainly remembered for the Second Buddhist Council held at Vaishali. Bimbisara, played a major role in the rise of Magadha. Bimbisara expanded Magadha through diplomacy and conquest, especially annexing Anga . Ajatashatru fought against Kosala and the Vajji confederacy and strengthened Magadha greatly, but the final annexation of Avanti happened later under Shishunaga. BCW Bits: Magadha became the most powerful Mahajanapada. Capital of early Magadha was Rajgir. Pataliputra later became the capital of Magadha. Bimbisara belonged to the Haryanka dynasty. Ajatashatru built the fort of Pataligrama. Avanti’s important capital was Ujjain. Nanda dynasty succeeded the Shishunaga dynasty. Mahapadma Nanda is called the ³first historical emperor of India” in some sources. Iron deposits near Magadha helped in military expansion. River Ganga played a major role in Magadha’s trade and communication.
The Deepak Parekh Committee is related to which of the following?
lanation:- The Deepak Parekh Committee was established by the Ministry of Finance on December 26, 2006, to propose measures for facilitating the financing of India’s infrastructure. In its report, submitted in May 2007, the committee highlighted various macroeconomic and institutional challenges in securing infrastructure financing. Deepak Parekh was once again appointed to lead a high-level committee on infrastructure financing in July 2012.
Which of the following is not correctly matched? creatures Respiration
(i) Fish – Gill
(ii) Earthworm – Lungs
(iii) Plants – Micro stomata Code:
Earthworms breathe through the skin. And fish has gills with the help of which it absorbs oxygen from the air dissolved in water. In the respiration process of plants, exchange of gases takes place mainly through their leaves. Leaves take in air through microscopic pores.
Consider the following statements regarding hemoglobin- 1. It provides red color to the blood.
2. It is found in white blood cells.
3. It provides immunity against some diseases.
4. It is the carrier of oxygen in the blood. Select the true statement-
Chapter2/Page41 The poor farmers did not just want a reduction in revenue. Many of them were farming by taking land on lease from landlords. As the Great Depression dragged on and cash income began to decline, it became difficult for small tenants to pay land rent. They wanted the rent they had to pay to the landlords to be waived off. For this, he took part in many radical movements whose leadership was often in the hands of socialists and communists. The Congress was often hesitant in supporting 'No- Rent' Campaign for fear of angering the rich farmers and landlords. For this reason the relationship between poor farmers and Congress remained uncertain.
Consider the following statements regarding E-jagriti portal
1. It is an initiative of the Department of Consumer Affairs, Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food, and Public Distribution.
2. It is a portal for consumer commissions.
3. This portal has been designed to further improve the customer experience.
4. It provides a simple, fast, and cost-effective consumer dispute redressal software solution at all levels.
Which of the above statements are correct
Assam Chief Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma has invited Prime Minister Narendra Modi to unveil the 125-foot tall statue of Bir Lachit Barphukan in Jorhat, Assam during the first week of March this year. Lachit Day is celebrated every year on 24 November to recognize the military genius and unwavering leadership abilities of the famous Ahom Empire commander Lachit Barphukan.
Consider the following statements regarding ionic compounds:
1. They are formed by electron transfer from non- metal to metal.
2. Ionic compounds do not conduct electricity in the solid state.
3. Conduct electricity in molten state. Select the false statement-
54 All metals except mercury are found in solid state at room temperature. Metals have high melting points, but gallium and cesium have very low melting points. If you place these two metals on your palm, they will start melting. Compounds formed by transfer of electrons from metal to non-metal are called ionic compounds or electrovalent compounds. Ionic compounds do not conduct electricity in the solid state, because movement of ions is not possible in the solid state due to their rigid structure, but ionic compounds conduct electricity in the molten state, because in the molten state there is a strong bond between the ions with opposite charges. The electrostatic force of attraction weakens due to heat. Therefore, ions move freely and conduct electricity.
Buoyant force is also known as:
Thrust force is also known as the buoyant force. Thrust force is given by the formula ⍴ × V × g. 93. B. Thorium According to a report of Department of Atomic Energy in India, there are approximately 10.70 million tons of monazite, which contains 9,63,000 tons of thorium oxide (ThO2 ). India is one country that has an abundance of thorium. Andhra Pradesh has about 35% of thorium reserve of India. 94. A. Due to nuclear power plant Kalpakkam (Chennai, Tamil Nadu) is known for its nuclear plants and affiliated research installations. These include the Madras Atomic Power Station (MAPS), a nuclear power plant, and the Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR- established in 1971), an affiliate of the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) and the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC). 95. C. Determining the presence and location of objects with radio waves RADAR stands for Radio Detection and Ranging. As indicated by the name, it is based on the use of radio waves. It refers to the technique of using radio waves to detect the presence of objects. Today, it is used for a wide variety of applications, such as to determine the range, angle or velocity of objects. It can be used to detect aircraft, ships, spacecraft, guided missiles, vehicles, weather formations, and terrain. 96. D. Richter scale - Humidity Richter scale is not used to measure humidity. In fact, it is used to rate the magnitude of an earthquake. Remaining pairs are correctly matched. 97. D. Volume The scalar quantity is defined as the quantity that has only got magnitude, but not directions whereas, vector quantity comprises of both magnitude and directions. Displacement, velocity and force are the examples of vector quantity while volume is a scalar quantity. 98. D. The vertical line through the centre of gravity of the tower falls within its base Anything will remain stable as long as the vertical line through the centre of gravity falls within its base. The centre of gravity is that point where the whole mass of the body is supposed to be concentrated. Till today the vertical line from the centre of gravity has been falling within the base of this tower. That is why it has not fallen. It is believed that when the tower leans further and the line from its centre of gravity passes out of its base, it will fall down 99. B. Our relative speed with respect to the Earth along the earth’s orbit is zero. The Earth spins and moves through space in an orbit around the sun. We don’t 'feel' this movement because we are spinning and moving through space with the earth. Since we are standing on the earth, we move as much (and as fast) as the earth moves. One way to recognize the earth’s movement is to look at objects that are not attached to earth : like the sun or stars. For example, if we are in a car which is moving at a constant speed on a smooth surface, we will not feel its motion. However, when the car accelerates or when the brakes are applied, we do feel the motion. 100. B. Reflect back the heat given off by earth. When you have cloudy night, the clouds prevent heat from escaping through the atmosphere and into space. The clouds act like a blanket and trap the heat. That is why every time when there is a cloudy night, it is always warmer than a clear night. 101. C. Native elements Native element is a material that consists of a single type of atom, while a compound consists of two or more types of atoms 102. D. Dissolving of sugar in water Physical changes affect the form of a chemical substance, but not its chemical composition. This fact contrasts with the concept of chemical change in which the chemical composition of the substance changes or one or more substances combines or break up to form new substances. In general, a physical change is using physical means. For example, sugar dissolved in water can be recovered by allowing the water to evaporate 103. B. Diamond Chemically diamond is the purest form of Carbon (crystal structure). Hence, it is a fundamental element. Sand is basically made up of Silicon and Oxygen, Marble is made up of Calcium, Carbon and Oxygen while sugar is mainly the compound of Carbon, Hydrogen and Oxygen 104. D. Nichrome Nichrome (NiCr, nickel-chrome, chrome-nickel, etc.) generally refers to any alloy of Nickel, Chromium and often Iron and/or other elements or substances. Nichrome is very hard and very ductile material. It has high specific resistively and minimum temperature coefficient. It also has the ability to operate at high temperature. Nichrome alloys are typically used in resistance wire. They are also used in some dental restorations (fillings) and in other applications. 105. D. Platinum Among the given options, platinum is the heaviest metal with a density of 21.09 g/cm3 . 106. B. Lead Metals like potassium and sodium react violently with cold water. The reaction of calcium with water is less violent. Magnesium does not react with cold water but it reacts with hot water. Metals like aluminium, iron and zinc do not react either with cold or hot water but they react with steam. Metals such as lead, copper, silver, gold and platinum do not react with water at all (neither with cold or hot water nor with steam). 107. A. Tin and Lead The common composition of solder is 32% Tin, 68% Lead. This combination has a low melting point and is useful for soldering components that are sensitive to heat. 108. C. Sulphur Salt, Sugar, Diamond, Quartz, Ice, Graphite etc. are in the form of crystal but Sulphur is not. It is a multivalent non-metallic chemical element. 109. B. Hydrogen Hydrogen is the purest combustion fuel. Water is generated from burning of hydrogen. While coal, kerosene oil and diesel are known as fossil fuel or carbonic fuel which generates carbon dioxide and many other harmful gases when it burns. 110.
Shrillness of sound is determined by
Oscillation is the to and fro movement of an object along its mean position. Frequency can be defined as the number of oscillations per second. It is expressed in hertz. We know that sound travels through the vibrations or oscillations produced in the particles of the medium. Pitch is a form of response produced by our ear in response to the sound wave entering our ear. The shrillness or pitch of a sound is determined by its frequency. Hence, if the frequency of vibration is higher i.e., no. of oscillations per second is higher the sound will have a higher pitch which means more sound waves are reaching our ear per unit time and if the frequency of vibration is lower the sound will have a lower pitch which means lesser number of sound waves is reaching our ear per unit time. As we know, the relationship between frequency, speed of light and wavelength is given by: (ν=c/ λ, where ν =frequency, c=speed of the light and λ =wavelength) Hence, the relationship between the wavelength of a sound wave and pitch of a sound can also be derived. Wavelength is the distance between two peaks (crests or troughs) of the waves. As the frequency is inversely proportional to the wavelength (from the above formula), A sound with a higher pitch will have a shorter wavelength and vice-versa. From the above formula, we can see that the frequency of a sound wave depends upon the speed of the light. As we know the speed of Physics.
What effect would heating have on a semiconductor’s resistance?
The semiconductor material’s conductivity increases as temperature rises. Similar to how temperature increases, energy is gained by the outermost electrons, and as a result, they are able to exit the atom’s shell. As a result, when temperature rises, more carriers are present in the semiconductor material, increasing the material’s conductivity. Consequently, we can state that the semiconductor material has a negative temperature coefficient, meaning that resistance lowers as the temperature rises.
Recently, the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) sought to provide oral formulation of “hydroxyurea” to treat -
lanation:- The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has invited Expressions of Interest (EOI) from eligible organisations for the “joint development and commercialization” of low-dose or paediatric oral formulation of hydroxyurea to treat sickle cell disease in India India has the highest prevalence of sickle cell disease in South Asia, and over 20 million sickle cell-affected individuals reside in the country.
Recently, Sapna Sinha has been named in the ‘Forbes 30 Under 30 Asia’ list for her research in which field?
Recently Sapna Sinha has been named in the ‘Forbes 30 Under 30 Asia’ list for her research in brain and cognitive sciences. She hails from Muzaffarpur district of Bihar. Currently, She is a professor at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT), USA.
Which of the following is a biocatalyst?
Organisms that live in water use oxygen dissolved Another aspect of the food we eat is its complex composition. If it is to be absorbed through the alimentary canal, it will have to be broken into small molecules. This work is done by bio-catalysts, which we call enzymes. Saliva also contains an enzyme called salivary amylase. This starch breaks down complex molecules into simple sugars.
Which of the following is the least stable oxide of chlorine?
Oxides of chlorine are generally unstable, endothermic compounds because the bond energy between chlorine and oxygen is relatively low. Their stability typically increases with the oxidation state of the chlorine atom (from +1 to +7), although molecular structure and electron configuration play critical roles in their reactivity. The stability of these oxides is determined by their thermal decomposition limits and their chemical structure: Dichlorine Monoxide (Cl2O): In this compound, chlorine is in its lowest oxidation state (+1). Because the stability of chlorine oxides typically follows the trend of increasing stability with higher oxidation states, Cl2O is considered the least stable among the common oxides. It is a yellowish-brown gas that decomposes explosively even at low temperatures or under minor physical shock. Dichlorine Heptoxide (Cl2O7): With chlorine in the +7 oxidation state, this is the most stable oxide. It is the anhydride of perchloric acid and is significantly less reactive than the other oxides. Chlorine Dioxide (ClO2) and Chlorine Trioxide (ClO3): While these are highly reactive and powerful oxidising agents, they possess higher oxidation states (+4 and +6/+7 in dimer form, respectively), which, according to the standard trend of chlorine oxides, makes them more stable relative to the +1 state of Cl2O. Stability Trend: Cl2O (Least Stable) < ClO2 < Cl2O6 (ClO3) < Cl2O7 (Most Stable)
An air bubble in water will behave like a -
An air bubble in water, whose surface is convex will act like a concave lens (divergent lens). The refractive index of water is more than that of air. Thus the nature of the lens of the submerged water bubble is changed.
In the universe, what are pulsars?
Pulsars are rapidly rotating neutron stars that blast out pulses of radiation at regular intervals ranging from seconds to milliseconds.
If the focal length of the objective lens is increased
The magnifying power of a compound microscope is inversely proportional to the focal length of the objective L D M lens (fo). It is given by the formula, f f = ´ o e Where, L is the tube length, D is the least distance of distinct vision, (fo) is the focal length of objective lens and (fe) is the focal length of the eyepiece. Thus, in case of microscope, increasing (fo) causes the magnifying power to decrease. The magnifying power of a telescope is directly proportional to the focal length of the objective lens (Fo), f M and is represented by the formula, o f = e Where, (Fo) is the focal length of the objective lens of telescope and (Fe) is the focal length of the eyepiece. Thus, in case of telescope, increasing (Fo) causes the magnifying power to increase. BCW Bits: The contrasting behaviour arises from the fundamental difference in design purpose: in a microscope, a shorter objective focal length brings the lens closer to the object, producing a highly magnified real image, so increasing fo reduces magnification. In a telescope, a longer objective focal length collects more detail from distant objects and increases the angular magnification ratio (Fo/Fe), so increasing Fo increases magnifying power.
Electron volt is a unit of:-
Electron volt is unit of energy. An electron-volt is the amount of kinetic energy gained or lost by a single electron accelerating from rest through an electric potential difference of one volt in vacuum.
The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) has recently unveiled its annual report titled “Crime in India for 2022”. Consider the following statements regarding it- 1. Bihar ranks 2nd in terms of murder cases.
2. Bihar ranks 1st in terms of dowry deaths.
3. Bihar ranks 2nd in terms of kidnapping and abduction cases.
4. Bihar tops in the cases related to land/property disputes.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
Statement 1 is correct: Bihar ranks 2nd in terms of murder cases, with a crime rate of 2.3 per lakh population. Statement 2 is incorrect: Bihar ranks 2nd in terms of dowry deaths, with a crime rate of 1.8 per lakh population. Statement 3 is incorrect: Bihar ranks 3rd in terms of kidnapping and abduction cases, with a crime rate of 9.4 per lakh population. Statement 4 is correct: Bihar tops in the cases related to land/property disputes, with the crime rate being 1.1 per lakh population.
Which of the following rivers is the southern tributary of Ganga in the region of Bihar.
1. Ghagra
2. Son
3. Bagmati
4. Karmanasha
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
The Son River originates from the Maikal mountain range, this river flows through Rohtas and joins the Ganga near Patna. The Son River is the main southern tributary of the Ganga in Bihar. Karmanasha river originates from the Kaimur hills. This river joins the Ganga near Buxar. Karmanasha river also determines the border with Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.
Who left Patna College with just 20 days remaining for his examination during the Non- Cooperation Movement?
On the call of the nationalist leader Maulana Abul Kalam Azad for giving up his English education, Jai Prakash Naryana left Patna College, barely 20 days before his exam and joined Bihar Vidyapeeth. BCW Bits: Jai Prakash Naryana was born on 11th October 1902, at the village Sitab Diara of the Saran district in Bihar. On the invitation from Jawahar Lal Nehru, he joined the INC in 1929. Congress Socialist Party was formed with Acharya Narendra Dev as President and Jay Prakash Narayan as General Secretary in 1934. He also led the Total Revolution in 1974 against Indira Gandhi which ultimately led to the formation of the Janta Party Government in 1977. He is popularly known as ‘Lok Nayak’. Patna Airport is named after Jaya Prakash Narayan.
Air pollution forecasting services (forecasted 72 hours in advance) will be started in which of the following districts of Bihar by the Bihar State Pollution Control Board (BSPCB) by December 2024?
The Bihar State Pollution Control Board will start air pollution forecasting services in three districts of Bihar by December 2024. Under this, Air pollution forecasting will be done in Patna, Gaya, and Muzaffarpur districts of Bihar. Under this, Air pollution will be forecasted 72 hours in advance by the Bihar State Pollution Control Board (BSPCB). For this, BSPCB is making an Air quality laboratory in the Patliputra industrial area and will install sensors at air pollution Hot Spot sites and traffic junctions in these three districts.
Which district topped in providing the benefits of the Department of Labour Resources, Government of Bihar’s schemes to the people of Bihar?
According to the rankings released by the Department of Labour Resources, Government of Bihar on November 15, 2023, Madhubani district ranked highest in effectively delivering the benefits of various Labour department schemes. This ranking is based on multiple parameters including activities related to child labour, rehabilitation of released child labourers, building construction activities, tax collection, and schemes for unorganised sector workers districts of Samastipur and Darbhanga, respectively, in second and third place.
According to a recent study by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII), which state in India has the highest number of Gangetic dolphins?
According to a recent study by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII), currently, about 4,000 Gangetic dolphins are present in the Ganga and its tributaries. According to this study, the population of Gangetic dolphins in Uttar Pradesh is expected to be 2,000, accounting for over 50% of the overall Gangetic dolphin population in India. The Uttar Pradesh government has also declared a Dolphin Sanctuary area in Chambal Sanctuary. For the conservation and protection of the Gangetic Dolphin, the Government of India launched Project Dolphin in 2021. Conservation Status:.
Which of the following statements regarding the State of Bihar during the period 2001—2011 is correct?
Per cent Growth of Population: In 2001±2011, Bihar¶s decadal population growth was 25.42%. In the previous decade, 1991±2001, it was 28.43%. This shows that the population growth rate decreased in 2011 compared to 2001. Bihar’s Share in India’s Total Population Bihar’s share of India’s population in 2001 was 8.07%. In 2011, it increased to 8.60%. This means Bihar¶s proportion of India¶s total population increased, even though its growth rate slowed.
The Vikramshila University was established by
Vikramshila University was founded by Pala King Dharmapala. It is located in Bhagalpur district of Bihar. It was one of the Buddhist centres for learning in ancient times. It was destroyed by Muhammad Bin Bakhtiyar Khalji’s forces around 1203 AD. BCW Bits : Gopala was the founder of the Pala dynasty. He established Odantapuri University at Bihar Sharif. Devpala, son of Dharmapala defeated Amoghvarsha of the Rashtrakuta dynasty.
Which district of Bihar has the largest gold reserve?
As per Media reports, in India, the largest reserves of gold ore (primary) are located in Bihar (44%) followed by Rajasthan (25%), Karnataka (21%), West Bengal (3%), Andhra Pradesh (3%), Jharkhand (2%). The remaining 2% resources of ore are located in Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Kerala, Maharashtra, and Tamil Nadu. The presence of gold in areas such as Karmatia, Jhajha, and Sono in the Jamui district, was confirmed by the Geological Survey of India. Minerals Districts Minerals Districts Limestone (Cement industry) Kaimur, Rohtas, Munger Pyrite (chemical & fertiliser industry) Kaimur, Rohtas Mica Nawada, Jamui & Gaya Bauxite (ore of aluminium) Quartzite Munger Quartz (glass) - use in explosives industry Nawada, Gaya, Munger Begusarai, Samastipur, Saran Galena Banka Saltpeter (use in explosives) China Clay Bhagalpur, Banka, Munger Asbestos Munger Tin Gaya Uranium Gaya Manganese Munger, Gaya Slate Munger Steatite Munger.
In which of the following districts river Ganga enters into Bihar?
Ganga enters Bihar at Chausa (Buxar) and exits by making a boundary between Katihar and Bhagalpur. Patna district has the longest length of the Ganga River in Bihar. BCW Bits: The number of districts situated on the bank of the Ganga River in Bihar state is 12. These 12 districts are Buxar, Bhojpur, Saran, Patna, Vaishali, Samastipur, Begusrai, Munger, Khagaria, Katihar, Bhagalpur, and Lakhisarai. In India, Ganga Àows through mainly 5 states namely Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand & West Bengal. The river basin of Ganga extends to 11 states of India. Length of Ganga River in Bihar- 445 km. Total length of river Ganga- 2525 km.
Baba Thakur Das established which Society in Patna?
Ramakrishna Mission Society was established by Baba Thakur Das in 1906 at Patna for nationalism and educational reforms. It is to be noted that the Ramkrishna mission was established in 1897 by Swami Vivekananda.
Who among the following was not an Acharya in The Nalanda Vishvavidyalaya?
There were several Acharyas Nagarjuna, sheelbhadra and Shantirakshit at the Nalanda Mahabihar. Kautilya was not an Acharya in Nalanda Vishwavidyalaya.
Karmanasa river originates in:
River Origin Related Information Ganga Gangotri (Uttarakhand) Enters Bihar from Chausa (Buxar); Total length- 2525 km., Bihar-445 km; Borders 12 districts of Bihar. North Bihar Rivers Ghagra Tibet Drains into Ganga (Saran); 83 km in Bihar Gandak Nepal (Annapurna Range) Drains into Ganga (near Hajipur); 260 km in Bihar. Budhi Gandak Drains into Ganga (Khagaria); 320 km in Bihar. Bagmati Bagdwar region, Shivpuri Hills (Nepal) Someshwar Hills Enters Bihar from Sitamarhi; Meets Koshi; 394 km. Kamla Mahabharat Hills (Nepal) Meet Koshi. Drains into Ganga (Kursela, Katihar); 260km. Mahananda Darjeeling, West Bengal Koshi Gushai sthan (Nepal) Meets Ganga outside Bihar. South Bihar Rivers Karmnasha Vindhyachal (Kaimur) Meets Ganga at Chausa; Forms the boundary with UP and Bihar. Son Amarkantak hills Meets Ganga near Patna. Two important tributaries of Son are Rihand and North Koel. It separates the Kaimur plateau from the Chota Nagpur plateau. Punpun Palamu (Jharkhand) Meets Ganga at Fatuha. Chotanagpur Pathar Meets Punpun in Patna district. Ajay Jamui Meets Ganga outside Bihar. Kiyul Hazaribagh (JH) Phalgu/ Niranjana Meet Ganga at Lakhisarai. Tarkash Annual PYQ Plus BPSC Concept Wallah.
Karmanasa river originate in:
The Karmanasa River is a significant tributary of the Ganges in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh. Origin: It originates on the northern face of the Kaimur Range (near Sarodag) in the Kaimur district of Bihar. Course: It Àows through the states of Bihar and Uttar Pradesh, acting as a natural boundary between the two for a considerable distance. ConÀuence: It joins the Ganges near a place called Chausa (Buxar district). Religious Significance: The name 'Karmanasa' literally means 'destroyer of religious merit' (Karma = deed, Nasa = destruction). In ancient times, it was considered an inauspicious river, and people believed that touching its water would destroy all their good deeds.
Which of the following district of Bihar does not shares its borders with Nepal
Districts of Bihar bordering Nepal are West Champaran, East Champaran, Sitamarhi, Madhubani, Supaul, Araria, and Kishanganj. BCW Bits: Kishanganj, Purnea, and Katihar are the 3 districts that border West Bengal. Eight Districts that share a border with Uttar Pradesh are West Champaran, Gopalganj, Siwan, Saran, Bhojpur, Buxar, Rohtas and Kaimur. Eight districts share a border with Jharkhand as well. These are: Rohtas, Aurangabad, Gaya, Nawada, Jamui, Banka, Bhagalpur and Katihar. Note: West Champaran shares the border with both Nepal and Uttar Pradesh. Katihar shares a border with both West Bengal and Jharkhand. Rohtas shares a border with both Uttar Pradesh and Jharkhand. Kishanganj shares a border with both Nepal and West Bengal.
The Bihari Students' Conference, an inÀuential students' organisation in Bihar's Nationalist Movement, was first held at
The Bihar Students' Conference was established in 1906, with Dr. Rajendra Prasad playing a pivotal role in its founding. The organization’s very first conference was held at Patna College, Patna. This inÀuential body was instrumental in engaging the youth of Bihar with the Indian freedom movement. Over the years, the conference held several notable sessions, including the 15th session at Daltonganj, presided over by C.F. Andrews, and the 16th session at Hazaribagh, presided over by Sarla Devi. Bihar Geography.
What is the approximate percentage of geographical area covered under forest in Bihar?
Forest cover in India vs. Bihar: India overall has around 21–24% forest cover (varies slightly by report). Bihar has relatively low forest cover compared to the national average due to high population density, extensive agricultural land use, and limited forested hilly regions. Bihar’s forest cover: Bihar has roughly 7% forest cover of its total geographical area. Forests are mainly concentrated in West Champaran (the Valmiki Tiger Reserve area) and in some parts of the Kaimur hills. Compared to other states, Bihar is forest-deficient. BCW Bits: India has around 21-24% forest cover, while Bihar has around 7% Valmiki Tiger Reserve is the only tiger reserve in Bihar. Bihar mainly lies in the Gangetic plains, which are more suitable for agriculture than for dense forest growth. Tarkash Annual PYQ Plus BPSC Concept Wallah.
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GS Mock Test VI | 100 MCQs with Explanations
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