GS Mock Test II for BPSC & Bihar Exams: 100 MCQs with Answers & Explanations
Practice 100 General Studies MCQs with click-to-reveal answers and detailed explanations for BPSC CCE, BPSC TRE, Bihar SSC and Bihar Daroga exams. Covers History, Indian Polity, Geography, Economics, General Science and Bihar Special GK.
Subjects covered
- Indian History
- Indian Polity & Constitution
- Geography
- Indian Economy
- General Science
- Bihar History & Geography
- Bihar Economy, Polity & Culture
- Bihar Special GK
- Important General Studies Facts
Ideal for: BPSC CCE, BPSC TRE, Bihar SSC, Bihar Police / Bihar Daroga and other Bihar competitive examinations.
About this mock test
Test and improve your General Studies preparation with this comprehensive 100-question GS Mock Test designed for BPSC CCE, BPSC TRE, Bihar SSC, Bihar Daroga and other Bihar government examinations. The test covers the most important areas of General Studies, including Ancient, Medieval and Modern Indian History, Indian Polity, Geography, Indian Economy, General Science and Bihar Special GK.
Each question is followed by a click-to-reveal answer and explanation, allowing you to attempt the question independently before checking the correct answer. The explanations are designed to help you understand the underlying concept rather than simply memorising the answer.
Use this mock test to assess your preparation, identify weak areas, revise important facts and improve accuracy and speed before the examination. The questions are structured around the type of factual, conceptual and analytical questions commonly encountered in competitive examinations.
Consider the following statements- 1. Bindusar built the first hospital and herbal garden in India.
2. The Gurjara rock inscription tells the name of Ashoka as ‘Devanampiye’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect: Ashoka did many welfare work like the construction of the first hospital and herbal garden. He also organised digging of wells and the planting of trees for shade. Statement 2 is correct: Ashoka the Great was the third king of the Mauryan Empire. He is referred to in his Gurjara rock edicts as Devanapiyam, which means “ Beloved of God”.
Consider the following statements about the Ancient Texts:
1. Kamadaka wrote Nitisara during the period of Chandragupta II.
2. Dandi wrote Dasakumaracharita.
3. Banabhatta wrote Kadambari a romantic novel.
Which of the above statements are correct?
- Statement 1 is correct. Kamandaka wrote the Kamandaka Nitisara during the period of Chandragupta II. It is equivalent to Kautilya's Arthasashtra, which gives an idea about the political life, diplomacy, and statecraft in ancient times in India. Kamandaka's Nitisara was composed after the classic and the only surviving root text of Kautilya's Arthashastra.
- Statement 2 is correct. The Dasakumaracarita relates the adventures of ten princes in their pursuit of love and royal power. It contains stories of common life and reflects a faithful picture of Indian society during the period couched in the colorful style of Sanskrit prose. Dandi, a renowned Sanskrit author of prose romances and expounder on poetics, wrote it.
- Statement 3 is correct. Kadambari was a romantic novel started by Banabhatta, the court poet of King Harshavardhana, in the early 7th Century AD. It is said that after Banabhatta died, leaving the long text unfinished, his son Bhushanabhatta completed it. It is conventionally divided into Purvabhaga (earlier part), written by Banabhatta, and Uttarabhaga (latter part), by Bhushanabhatta. (An alternate tradition gives the son's name as Pulindabhatta.) The novel's name was given after the name of the heroin Kadambari.
What was the largest administrative unit under the Gupta dynasty?
lanation:- The largest administrative unit under the Gupta dynasty was the province, or Bhukti:.
Which one of the following books of ancient India has the love story of the son of the founder of the Sunga dynasty?
Kalidasa, a renowned Sanskrit poet and dramatist, is widely regarded as one of the greatest Indian writers of all time. He is credited with seven notable works: Abhijnanashakuntalam, Vikramorvashi, Malavikagnimitra, Raghuvamsha, Kumarasambhava, Meghadoota, and (7) Ritusamhara. The first play composed by Kalidasa is Malavikagnimitram, sometimes referred to as Kalidasa Malavikagnimitram in honor of the poet. This play tells the story of King Agnimitra of Vidisha (son of Pushyamitra Shunga-founder of the Sunga dynasty), belonging to the Shunga dynasty, and his love for Malavika. It consists of five acts and explores their romantic journey. Svapnavasavadattam is a Sanskrit play of six acts written by Bhasa. Ratnavali is a Sanskrit drama about a princess Ratnavali, and a king Udayana, written by Harshvardhana.
How many statements is/are correct regarding the Rig Vedic Society
1. The society was Patriarchal.
2. There is no mention of women priests.
3. There is no mention of women sages
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- Statement 1 is correct. The Household in the Rig Vedic society was a patriarchal family headed by the father, as in Roman Society. It seems that several generations of the family lived under the same roof. As it was a patriarchal society, the son's birth was repeatedly desired, and people prayed to the gods for brave sons to fight the wars. Possibly they were indicating matrilineal traces and a few examples of sons being named after their mother, as in the case of Mamateya.
- Statement 2 is correct. Rig Vedic women could offer sacrifices with their husbands and participate in rituals but not in their own rites. They participated in chariot races. The Rig Veda contains hymns composed by women. There is no mention of women priests or women receiving dana or Dakshina.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The women in rig vedic period attended the Sabha and various social gatherings. There are references to women's sages. However they are very few.
Which Was the First Non-Kshatriya Ruling Dynasty In India? (District Art and Culture BPSC)
Nanda Dynasty was the first non-Kshatriya Dynasty Founded by Mahapadmananda, who was also called Ekrat, Ugrasena, and Sarva- Kshatrantaka(Uprooter of all Kshatriyas). Alexander invaded India during Dhananada in 326 B.C. Mahapadmanand merged Kalinga with Magadha and brought the statue of Jina from Kalinga as a Victory Symbol.
Which of the following Harappan sites is in Gujarat? (67th Cancelled BPSC)
Indus civilization, also called Harappan civilization is the earliest known urban culture of the Indian subcontinent. The use of burnt bricks is the most remarkable feature of the IVC. This is because the contemporary civilization of Egypt still used dried bricks at that time. The most famous example of the use of burnt bricks is the Great Bath of Mohenjodaro. Lothal is a prominent Harappan site which is located in Gujarat state. It is situated on the banks of the Bhogwa River. This site was excavated under Shikaripura Ranganatha Rao (S.R. Rao) in 1953. During excavations, it’s been established that this city was used as a port. Fire altars, millets, rice grains, game equipment resembling chess, a Persian seal, burial sites, Scale made of ivory, seals, etc have been excavated from here. Unlike other Harappan cities, the doors of houses opened on the streets which clarifies its economic importance in the Indus Valley civilization. Port cities of IVC: Lothal, Sutkagendor, Allahdino, Balakot, Kuntasi No temples or religious structures have been found at any Harappan site.
According to the Puranas and Mahabharata, the oldest dynasty of Magadha is considered to be.
Brihadratha is considered to be the founder of the Brihadratha dynasty. According to the Puranas and the Mahabharata, this was the ancient dynasty of Magadha. According to Buddhist texts, the Haryanka dynasty is the oldest dynasty of Magadha. The mighty ruler of this dynasty was Jarasandha. Ripunjay was the last ruler of this dynasty. During this dynasty, the capital of Magadha was Vasumati/Girivarj/Kushagrpur.
Which Gupta ruler is said to have defeated 9 kings of Aryavarta and 12 kings of Dakshinavarta?
- Samudragupta ascended the throne in 335 AD. He defeated 9 rulers of Aryavarta and 12 rulers of Dakshinavarta.
- V.S. Smith has called Samudragupta as the Napoleon of India.
- The Allahabad inscription mentions Samudra Gupta’s reign and expansion of his empire.
- Samudragupta was a great admirer of music. He is shown playing Veena on coins of Gupta reign.
- Samudragupta is also given the title of Kaviraj.
- King Meghavarman of Sri Lanka had sought permission from Samudragupta to build a Buddhist monastery in Gaya.
Slave dynasty ruler Balban was known for his policies and consolidating his empire. In this context, which of the following statements are correct?
1. He subdued the powers of the Chahalgani and took major control of the empire.
2. He introduced the practice of Zaminbosi and Paibosi.
3. To counter Mongol attacks, he created the Department of Military Affairs (Diwan-i-arz).
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- Balban died in 1287, after 20 years of rule as a General and Minister, and 20 years as a Sultan of Delhi.
- Balban was the first king who understood the conditions and requirements of being a Sultan of Delhi and fulfilled them practically. He is known as one of the severest kings of India.
- He introduced Sijda or Zaminbosi and Paibosi practices of the Persian courts in India. People would kneel down and touch the ground with their head to greet the Sultan (Sijda/Zaminbosi) and kiss the feet of the Sultan (Paibosi)
- He forwarded the Iranian Theory of Divine Rights, that the Sultan is the representative of God on the Earth.
- He executed the “Corp of Forty” and ended its influence.
- To counter the Mongols, he organized his military. For this he made some changes, like abolition of the post of the Naik and creating a new Department of Military Affairs, known as Diwan-i- arz. The in-charge of Diwan-i-arz was Ariz-i- Mumalik.
Consider the following statements about Balban:
1. He was the founder of the Mamluk dynasty
2. He adopted a policy of consolidation rather than expansion
3. He introduced the copper coin Jital
4. He kept the power of nobles in check.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
- Statement 1 is incorrect. Ghiyas-ud-din Balban (1266 to 1287 AD), the ninth Sultan of the Mamluk dynasty of Delhi, was one of the most powerful Sultans. He was a member of Iltutmish's famed group of 40 Turkic slaves. Qutubuddin Aibak founded the Mamluk (Slave) dynasty.
- Statement 2 is correct. He adopted a policy of consolidation rather than expansion.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The silver and copper coins were mainly in circulation for cash transactions during the period of the Delhi Sultanate. Iltutmish and not Balban introduced the two coins, the Tanka (silver coin) and the Jital (copper coin), which became the basis for the subsequent coinage of the Delhi Sultanate. The value of coinage fluctuated with the change in the prices of metals.
- Statement 4 is correct. Balban ruled in an autocratic manner and worked hard to elevate the position of the Sultan. He introduced a new theory of kingship and redefined the relations between the Sultan and nobility. He did not allow any noble to assume great power.
“No government, not even the British has shown so much wisdom as this Pathan.” Who wrote these words about Sher Shah Suri?
Henry George Keene was an English historian of medieval and modern India. From 1847 to 1882 Keene served in the Bengal Civil Service. During the Indian Rebellion of 1857, he was Superintendent at Dehradun. In his book, "The Turks in India; critical chapters on the Administration of that country by the Chughtai, Baìbar, and his descendants", he talks about the Mughal empire and says about Sher Shah Suri, "No Government-not even the British-has so much wisdom as this Pathan." According to Erskine, “Sher Shah had more of the spirit of a legislator and a guardian of his people than any prince before Akbar.”According to Dr Smith, “If Sher Shah had been spared, the Great Mughals would not have appeared on the stage of history.”.
“Thus, to Ala-ud-din belongs the credit of being the first Turkish Sultan of Delhi to bring the church under the control of the state and to usher in factors that might make the state in theory.” Who wrote these words?
Ala-ud-din was the first Sultan of Delhi who did not pursue the principles of Islam, did not Medieval History.
Which of the following pairs is incorrect?
- Warren Hastings was involved in the First Maratha War which happened in 1775-82 and led to signing of Treaty of Salbai in 1782.
- Lord Wellesley is associated with the Second Maratha War which happened in 1803-05.
- Lord Hastings or Marques Hastings is engaged in the Third Maratha War (1817-19) which led to the dissolution of the Maratha Confederacy and the creation of the Bombay Presidency (1818)
- Lord Cornwallis was not associated with Anglo Maratha Wars. But he was associated with Third Anglo Mysore War.
With reference to the Bhakti movement of the medieval period, Nalayira Divyaprabandham is?
- By the tenth century the compositions of the 12 Alvars were compiled in an anthology known as the Nalayira Divyaprabandham ("Four Thousand Sacred Compositions")
- The poems of Appar, Sambandar and Sundarar form the Tevaram, a collection that was compiled and classified in the tenth century on the basis of the music of the songs.
Mughal painting reached its Zenith under
Jahangir had a deep interest in painting art and under him, Mughal painting achieved its zenith. The origin of the Mughal style was a result of the synthesis of the original Indian style of painting and the Safavid school of Persian painting. Mughal paintings were a unique blend of Indian, Persian, and Islamic styles. During Jahangir, the Persian and Indian style of painting was fully synthesised. Indian painting became free from foreign influence during his reign. He was a keen naturalist and his preference was for paintings of hunting scenes, birds, and flowers. He continued the tradition of portraiture. Abul Hasan, Mansur, Bishan Das, Goverdhan, Balchand, Daulat, Mukhlis, Bhim, and Inayat were famous painters in the court of Jahangir Note: Akbar established “Karkhana” for the painting where Indian and Persian painters used to work. The theme of the painting was “Fairs and Festivals” and Natural elements Medieval History.
The famous Buland Darwaza at Fatehpur Sikri forms which entrance to the Jama Masjid?
The Buland Darwaza (Door of victory), a grand gateway constructed by Akbar in 1602 A.D., stands as a testament to Akbar’s triumph over Gujarat. Crafted from red sandstone and adorned with white marble, this imposing structure is located in Fatehpur Sikri, near Agra.15-storeyed Buland Darwaja is the highest gateway in the world. This historic gateway serves as the southern entrance to Jama Masjid and forms the part of Fatehpur Sikri complex. BCW Bits: In 1571, Akbar, the Mughal Emperor, established Fatehpur Sikri, also known as the "City of Victory," as the capital of the Mughal Empire. This historic site encompasses several magnificent structures showcasing Mughal architecture, including the Jama Masjid, Buland Darwaza, Punch Mahal, and the Tomb of Shaikh Salim Chisti. The Jama Masjid of Fatehpur Sikri is renowned as the "Shah-i-Fatehpur" or "Shah-i-Sikri." Notably, Fatehpur Sikri was designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1986.
Consider the following statements with reference to the events that followed the arrest of Gandhi in March 1922:
1. C.R. Das, Motilal Nehru, and Ajmal Khan advocated the boycott of legislative councils.
2. Rajagopalachari, Vallabhbhai Patel, Rajendra Prasad, and M.A. Ansari wanted to enter the Legislative coun- cils.
Which of the above mentioned statements are correct?
- Statement 1 is incorrect. C.R. Das, Motilal Nehru, and Ajmal Khan wanted to enter the Legislative councils to put forward their interests and wants. They would resort to obstruction of the working of these councils, if they failed to accept their demands. They came to be known as Swarajists.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. Rajagopalachari, Vallabhbhai Patel, Rajendra Prasad, and M.A. Ansari advocated the boycott of legislative councils. They came to be known as No Changers.
On 13th April 1919, a large, peaceful crowd had gathered in the Jallianwala Bagh at Amristar to protest against the arrest of?
1. Mahatma Gandhi
2. Lala Lajpat Rai
3. Saifuddin Kitchlu
4. Dr. Satyapal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A large peaceful crowd had gathered at the Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar on 13th April, 1919 to protest against the Rowlatt Act and the arrest of popular leaders Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Dr. Satya Pal.
- In response to the public gathering, the temporary brigadier general R. E. H. Dyer, surrounded the people with Gurkha and Sikh infantry regiments and ordered indiscriminate fire on the masses.
- This horrible incident is known as Jallianwala Bagh Massacre in which over thousand people were killed.
- Rabindranath Tagore wrote a letter to the Viceroy of India, Lord Chelmsford and renounced his Knighthood in protest of the incident.
Consider the following statements about Bal Gangadhar Tilak:
1. He launched the daily newspaper Yugantar.
2. Mahatma Gandhi called him the "Father of Indian Unrest".
Which of the above statements are correct?
Yugantar (Jugantar) was launched by Barindra Kumar Ghosh. Valentine Chirol called Tilak as the “Father of Indian Unrest”. Mahatma Gandhi called him as the Maker of Modern India. Therefore both the statements are incorrect.
Which of the following statement is correct with reference to Mahatma Gandhi's view towards Swarajist leaders?
1. He was opposed to the council-entry programme of Swarajists.
2. He never considered them patriots and avoided any personal relations with Swarajists.
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
- Mahatma Gandhi's stance towards the Swarajist leaders, who advocated for entry into the councils set up under British rule, was indeed one of opposition. Gandhi believed that participating in the councils contradicted the principles of Non-Cooperation, which he championed. His belief was rooted in the notion that any cooperation with the colonial system implicitly endorsed it, which was counterproductive to the goals of Non-Cooperation aimed at complete independence.
- However, despite his opposition to their strategy, Gandhi did not dismiss the Swarajists as unpatriotic nor did he avoid personal relations with them. He recognized their commitment to the nation and their place within the broader nationalist movement. Gandhi's disagreements with the Swarajists were strategic rather than personal or moral. He respected their intentions and acknowledged that, given their perspective and approach, participating in the councils was consistent for them. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding Rowlatt Act ?
The Rowlatt Satyagraha was a reaction to the British government’s introduction of the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919, commonly referred to as the Rowlatt Act. Gandhiji initiated a nationwide movement against this act, which had been enacted based on the recommendations of the Sedition Committee led by Sir Sidney Rowlatt. The act permitted the detention of alleged political agitators without trial for up to two years, with no right of appeal against such administrative detention.
What portfolio was Rajendra Prasad held in the interim government established in 1946 AD.? Modern History 534
Name Portfolios Jawaharlal Nehru Vice President of the Executive Council, External Affairs and Commonwealth Relations Vallabhbhai Patel Home Affairs, Information, and Broadcasting Rajendra Prasad Agriculture and Food C.Rajagopalachari Education and Arts Baldev Singh Defense Dr. John Mathai Industries and Supplies Jagjivan Ram Labour Asaf Ali Railways and Transportation C.H. Bhabha Work, Mines, and Power Finance Liaquat Ali Khan (Muslim League) Law Jogendranath Mandal (Muslim League) Communications, Post and Air Abdur Rab Nishtar (Muslim League) Commerce Ismail Ibrahim Chundigar (Muslim League) Health Ghazanfar Ali Khan (Muslim League)
The process of split in the Congress in the early years of the twentieth century began over
The process of split in the Congress in the early years of 20th century began over the differences between extremists and moderates which originated during Swadeshi movement. Extremists wanted to extend the Swadeshi and the boycott movement from Bengal to the rest of the country and they wanted to gradually extend the boycott from foreign goods to every form of association or cooperation with the colonial government. Moderates were of opposite views. Thus, correct option is (d)
The famous painting “The Relief of Lucknow” (1857) was created by which renowned artist ?
Thomas Jones Barker was a British painter known for his historical and military scenes. His painting “The Relief of Lucknow” vividly captures the moment when British forces, led by General Havelock, Sir James Outram, and Sir Colin Campbell, broke through to relieve the besieged garrison at Lucknow during the Indian Rebellion of 1857. The painting is celebrated for its dramatic portrayal of this pivotal event in British colonial history. Barker’s work stands out for its attention to detail and the way it conveys the tension and emotion of the moment.
Who among the following organised Vedaranyam Satyagraha in April 1930?
C Rajagopalachari led the Salt Satyagraha protest in Tamil Nadu. Inspired by the Dandi March by Mahatma Gandhi, a group of 100 men led by C Rajagopalachari marched to Vedaranyam and extracted salt from seawater in April 1930 to break the salt law imposed by the British.
In which session of the Indian National Congress did the Surat Split take place ?
The Surat Split occurred during the Surat Session of the Indian National Congress in 1907. This session is significant in the history of the Indian freedom struggle as it marked the division between the Moderates and the Extremists within the Congress party. Background: By 1907, there were two dominant factions within the Indian National Congress: the Moderates, led by leaders like Gopal Krishna Gokhale, and the Extremists, led by leaders such as Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal, and Lala Lajpat Rai. Causes of the Split: The split was primarily due to differences in ideologies. The Moderates believed in gradual reforms and were willing to work within the framework of British rule. In contrast, the Extremists advocated for direct action, including protests and boycotts, to demand self-rule. The Surat Session: The conflict came to a head at the Surat Session in December 1907. The session was chaotic, with disagreements over the election of the Congress president. The Extremists wanted Tilak as president, but the Moderates opposed this, fearing that his radical ideas would alienate the British government. This disagreement led to a physical confrontation, resulting in the formal split of the Congress into two factions. Impact: The split weakened the Congress and affected the momentum of the freedom movement. It was not until the Lucknow Pact of 1916 that the two factions reconciled.
The “Rolling Plan” concept in national planning was introduced by
The concept of rolling plan in national planning was implemented by the Janata Party government. The rolling plan was started on April 1, 1978, ending the fifth five-year plan a year earlier i.e. in 1978 AD.
With reference to the Modern Indian history, which among the following events happened earliest?
- Gandhi founded the All-India Village Industries Association in Wardha in 1934. Jamnalal Bajaj has donated considerable land and buildings to the All-India Village Industries Association.
- Gandhi organized the first All-India Village Industries Exhibition in Indore in 1935.
- Gandhi founded the All India Anti Untouchability League in 1932. It was meant to remove untouchability in the society. The League was later renamed Harijan Sevak Sangh.
- The federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) was established in 1927. FICCI is the largest and oldest apex business organization in India.
- On his return from South Africa, Gandhi’s first Ashram in India was established in the Kochrab area of Ahmedabad on 25 May 1915.
Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Prohibition of Sati -William Bentinck
2. Illbert Bill - Lord Curzon
3. Cripps Mission - Lord Wavell
4. Indian Independence Act - Lord Mountbatten
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- Prohibition of Sati - Lord William Bentick.
- Illbert Bill - Lord Ripon.
- Cripps Mission - Lord Linlithgow.
- Indian Independence Act - Lord Mountbatten.
With reference to the pardoning power of the Governor given in Article 161, consider the following statements:
1. He can pardon a death sentence.
2. He can grant pardon to any person convicted of any offense against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the State extends.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
In the US, only the powers of the Federal Government are enumerated in the Constitution and the residuary powers are left to the states. The Australian Constitution followed the American pattern of single enumeration of powers. In Canada, on the other hand, there is a double enumeration – Federal and Provincial, and the residuary powers are vested in the Centre. The Government of India Act of 1935 provided for a three- fold enumeration, viz., federal, provincial and concurrent. The present Constitution follows the scheme of this Act, but with one difference, i.e., under this Act, the residuary powers were given neither to the Federal Legislature nor to the Provincial Legislature but to the Governor General of India. In this respect, India follows the Canadian precedent. The Constitution expressly secures the predominance of the Union List over the State List and the Concurrent List and that of the Concurrent List over the State List.
Consider the following functions of State Election Commission and select the correct answer using the code given below?
1. Prepares the electoral rolls for Panchayats and Municipalities elections in the State.
2. Conducts elections for Panchayats and Municipalities of the State.
3. Conducts elections for other bodies in addition to Panchayats and Municipalities in accordance with the directions given by the Governor.
4. Prepares the electoral rolls and conducts elections as assigned by Election Commission of India. Code:
- Statement l is correct: One of the functions of the State Election Commission is to prepare and revise the electoral rolls for the elections to the rural and urban local bodies, as per Article 243K and Article 243ZA of the Constitution Statement 2 is correct: Another function of the State Election Commission is to conduct free and fair elections for the rural and urban local bodies, as per Article 243K and Article 243ZA of the Constitution.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: State Election Commission is mandated to Conducts elections only for Panchayats and Municipalities of the State.
- Statement 4 is incorrect: This function (preparation of the electoral rolls and conducts elections) is not assigned to the State Election Commission, but to the Chief Electoral Officer of each state, who works under the supervision and control of the Election Commission of India. The Chief Electoral Officer is responsible for preparing and revising the electoral rolls and conducting elections for Parliament and state legislatures, as per Article 324 of the Constitution.
Which of the following prerogative writs issued by the Court directs the concerned authority to do something immediately?
Under Article 32 the Supreme Court and under Article 226 the high courts can issue the writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari, and quo-warranto. The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights whereas a high court can issue writs not only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for the enforcement of ordinary legal rights. Habeas Corpus It is an order issued by the court to a person who has detained another person, to produce the body of the latter before it for examining the cause and legality of detention. It can be issued against both public authorities as well as private individuals. Mandamus It is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform the official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It cannot be issued against a private individual or body. Prohibition It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction. It is not available against private individuals or bodies. Certiorari It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal either to transfer a case pending with the latter to itself or to squash the order of the latter in a case. It is also not available for private individuals or bodies. Quo-Warranto It is issued by the court to enquire into the legality of a claim of a person to a public office. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office. Polity and Governance.
If a Bill is returned by the President for reconsideration to Parliament/state legislature which is passed again by the Parliament/state legislature, with or without amendments, the President:
When a Bill is sent to the President after it has been passed by the Parliament, he can:.
The Supreme Court has held that hoisting the National Flag atop private buildings is a fundamental right of every citizen under :
The right to hoist the National Flag with respect and dignity is a fundamental right of a citizen within Article 19(1) (a) of the Constitution of India and is an expression and manifestation of his allegiance, feelings, and sentiments of pride for the nation. The design of the National Flag was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India on 22 July 1947.Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru proposed the resolution for the formal adoption of India’s National Flag. He presented the flag before the assembly members.
In which landmark case did the Supreme Court describe the Indian Constitution as being based on the Harmony between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy ?
lanation:- In the 1980 Minerva Mills case, Justice P.N. Bhagwati stated that “The Indian Constitution is built upon the fundamental balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy. Granting absolute precedence to one over the other disrupts constitutional harmony. This balance is a crucial aspect of the Constitution’s basic structure.”.
The Parliament of India can create a new state by separating its territory from any state or by merging two or more states. – In which article of the Indian Constitution is this provision?
Part-2, Ch-7, P-161 Parliament has control over the existence of a state and the stability of its geographical boundaries. According to Article 3, Parliament can 'form a new State by separating its territory from any State or by combining two or more States'. Parliament can change the boundaries or name of a state. But to prevent misuse of this power, the Constitution first gives an opportunity to the Legislature of the affected state to express its views.
Who among the following creates or abolish a Legislative Council in a State?
The Parliament can create or abolish a Legislative Council in a State. Under Article 169 of The Constitution Of India, the provisions related to the creation and abolishment of Legislative Councils in States are mentioned. According to Article 169: Parliament may by law (simple majority) provide for the abolition of the Legislative Council of a State having such a Council or for the creation of such a Council in a State having no such Council if the Legislative Assembly of the State passes a resolution to that effect by a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the Assembly present and voting. It also specifies that - No such law as aforesaid shall be deemed to be an amendment of this Constitution for the purposes of Article.
The Members of Panchayat Samiti are-
The Members of Panchayat Samiti are directly elected by the public. This is because Panchayat Samiti or Block Panchayat is a rural local government body at the intermediate tehsil or block level in India, and it has some directly elected members by the voters of that area.
What was the purpose of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, of 2019?
Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 was passed to grant citizenship to persecuted minority groups of Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan. This bill seeks to make persecuted people of minority groups from these three countries eligible for citizenship, these minority groups are- i. Hindus ii. Buddhists iii. Sikhs iv. Jains v. Parsis and vi. Christians Polity and Governance.
What is the system of governance based on the principle of leadership of one person called?
Presidential The President is the head of the country. He is also the head of the government. The President is usually elected by direct voting. He is not answerable to the legislature.
If a Parliament is dissolved, elections are to be held within (Headmaster BPSC )
According to article 83 (2) of the constitution, the lower house can be dissolved by the president on the advice of the prime minister. In case of dissolution, the election should be within a period of six months from the date of its dissolution.
Consider the following statements:- 1. Tea is an example of a plantation agriculture.
2. It is sown in areas with hot, humid and subtropical humid tropical climate.
3. Tea cultivation in India started in the year 1840 in the Brahmaputra valley of Assam. Select the true statement:-
In case of starting a stationary object from rest, the force applied on the object to overcome the friction is the measure of static friction. Conversely, the force required to keep an object moving at the same speed is a measure of its sliding friction. When the box starts sliding, the contact points on its surface do not have enough time to sink into the contact points on the floor. Therefore, sliding friction is slightly less than static friction. That is why it is easier to maintain the speed of a box that is already in motion than to start the motion of a box.
Consider the following statements- 1. The hills of Purvanchal are made up of sedimentary rocks and sandstones.
2. The central highlands are wider in the east but narrow in the west. Choose the false statement-
12 The Purvachal or Eastern Hills pass through the north-eastern states and are composed of strong sandstones, which are sedimentary rocks. They are covered with dense forests and are mostly parallel ranges and valleys. Are spread as. Purvanchal includes Patkai, Naga, Mizo and Manipur hills. The peninsular plateau is a table-shaped area made up of old crystalline, igneous and metamorphic rocks. It was formed due to the breaking and drainage of Gondwana land and that is why it is a part of the oldest landmass. This plateau part has wide and shallow valleys and rounded hills. This.
Consider the following statements regarding the major waterfalls of India.
1. Kunchikal Falls in Karnataka is the highest waterfall in India.
2. Nohkalikai Falls located near Cherrapunji is the tallest plunge waterfall in India.
3. Shillong, the “Scotland of the East,” is bordered by Bhagsu waterfalls.
Which of the above mentioned statements is/ are correct ?
- Waterfalls are natural features where water flows over a vertical drop or a series of steep drops in the course of a stream or river. Kunchikal Falls in Shimoga District Karnataka is the highest waterfall in India with a height of 1493 feet. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.
- The highest waterfall in India (Kunchikal Falls) is formed by the Varahi River.
- Nohkalikai Falls located near Cherrapunji is the tallest plunge waterfall in India. Its height is 1115 feet (340 metres) and is one of the wettest places on Earth. Therefore, statement 2 is correct. Shillong, the “Scotland of the East,” is bordered by Elephant Falls. Therefore, statement 3 is incorrect.
Consider the following statements regarding the “shadow zones”:
1. Seismographs located at any distance within 105° from the focus, recorded the arrival of both the P- and the S-waves.
2. Shadow zone of the P – waves is much larger than that of the S- waves.
Which of the statements given above is correct?
Earthquake waves get recorded in seismographs located at far off locations. However, there exist some specific areas where the waves are not reported. Such a zone is called the ‘shadow zone’. The study of different events reveals that for each earthquake, there exists an altogether different shadow zone. It was observed that the seismographs located at any distance within 105° from the epicentre, recorded the arrival of both the P- and the S-waves. However, the seismographs located beyond 145° from the epicentre, record the arrival of the P-waves, but not that of the S- waves. Thus, a zone between 105° and 145° from the epicentre was identified as the ‘shadow zone’ for both the types of waves. The entire zone beyond 105° does not receive the S-waves. The shadow zone of the S- waves is much larger than that of the P-waves. The shadow zone of the P-waves appears as a band around the Earth between 105° and 145° away from the epicentre. The shadow zone of the S-waves is not only larger in extent, but it is also a little over 40% of the Earth surface. You can draw the shadow zone for any earthquake, provided you know the location of the epicentre.
Which state received the Aspiring Leader Award for developing a strong ecosystem for the startup sector according to the Startup Awards 2022 announced by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry?
- The Ministry of Commerce and Industry announced the Startup Awards 2022, where Bihar was recognized with the Aspiring Leader Award for its efforts in developing a robust ecosystem for the startup sector.
- This recognition reflects the state's success in fostering a conducive environment for startups, as evidenced by the establishment of more than 500 startups, including the notable Medivisor Pvt. Ltd., which received the Best Startup of the Year award.
Which of the following issues was primarily addressed by the Gadgil Committee (1962) and the KasturiRangan Committee (2013) ?
lanation:- The Gadgil Committee (1962), officially known as the “Committee on the Development of the Western Ghats,” was established to address environmental concerns and the management of the Western Ghats region. The committee focused on conservation issues and the sustainable development of this ecologically sensitive area. The KasturiRangan Committee (2013), also known as the “High-Level Working Group on Western Ghats,” was set up to review and provide recommendations for the protection and sustainable management of the Western Ghats. The committee’s work was aimed at balancing conservation with development needs in the region.
Favourable physical conditions for Rubber plantation occur in Amazon Basin but lacks workers. Code :
The tropical plantation is one of the world’s oldest systems of commercial agriculture. Plantation crops are usually raised on large estates, of more than 40 hectares (100 acres) each, though the success of such crops has often encouraged other farmers to grow them so small holdings also exist side by side with the large estates. It is always a monoculture over a large area , e.g., coff ee in Brazil, Tea in India, Rubber in Malaysia, etc. Some of the main plantation crops are Rubber, Palm oil, Cotton and Copra, Beverages like Coff ee, Tea and Cocoa, Fruits like Pineapples and Bananas, as well as Sugarcane, hemp and jute. Although these crops require heavy rainfall for its growth, stagnant water is injurious to its roots. It is, therefore, grown on hill slopes where water drains away easily and water-logging does not take place. However, it grows equally well in the valley if the drainage is good. Thus, statement (1) is wrong but statement (2) is correct. Till 19th century, Amazon Basin was a major producer of Natural Rubber. Favourable conditions for rubber plantation existed in Amazon Basin and rubber plants even grow spontaneously. Now, Rubber production is not salient characteristic of South American Countries because of the lack of workers and many other reasons. Thus, statement (3) is correct.
Consider the following problems being faced by the Indian coal industry- I. Poor quality of coal and bottlenecks in the coal movement. II. Low utilisation capacity of washeries. III. Growing dependence on the import of coking coal. IV. Administered prices.
Which of the above are correct.
Currently, coal industry in India is facing a lot of challenges which are low-quality coal, defi ciency in coal washing establishment, high import of coking coal and administered prices etc.
Assertion (A) : The Eastern coast of India produces more rice than the Western coast. Reason (R) : The Eastern coast receives more rainfall than the Western coast. Code :
The western coast receives more rainfall than the eastern coast because the western coast is narrower than the eastern coast and has high altitude mountain than eastern coast. The reason for rice production being more in the eastern coast is its suitable climate, soil and rainfall.
If the doors of the refrigerator are left open for a few hours then the room temperature will be
The average room temperature in the room will rise. The reason is that with the door open, the temperature will start to rise inside the refrigerator. The thermostat will kick in and try to cool it back down. This means the motor is running, which means heat is being added to the room.
Which state is known as "Silicon State" of India ?
Karnataka is known as the “Silicon State” of India as it is a hub of Information and Technology Companies in India. The Silicon Valley of India is a nickname of Indian city Bengaluru which is the capital of Karnataka.
The biggest producer of Bauxite in the world is –
According to the data of Indian Mineral Year Book-2012 Australia is the leading producer of Bauxite. According to Mineral Commodity Summaries 2021, Australia continued to be the major producer of Bauxite.
The most populated desert in the world is –
The Thar desert is the most densely populated desert in the world with a population density of 83 people per square km whereas other deserts have a population density of 7 people per square km.
Which of the following is the largest island of Japan ?
Japan is a group of four main islands Hokkaido, Shikoku, Kyushu & Honshu. Honshu is the largest island where capital Tokyo is situated. In these islands, Hokkaido (83,453.57 km2) is in the north and mainland Honshu (288000 km2) and Shikoku & Kyushu are situated at south-west of the archipelago. 21. The largest island of Japan in terms of the geographical area is. (a) Hokkaido (b) Honshu (c) Shikoku (d) Kyushu (e) None of the above/More than one of the above 66th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2020 Ans. (b) See the explanation of above question.
Consider the following corporations/ authorities:
1. Reserve Bank of India
2. Food Corporation of India
3. State Bank of India
4. Life Insurance Corporation of India
Which of the above are totally and directly audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)?
- The role of CAG in the auditing of public corporations is limited. Broadly speaking, his relationship with the public corporations falls into the following three categories:.
- Some corporations are audited totally and directly by the CAG, for example, Damodar Valley Corporation, Oil and Natural Gas Corporation, etc.
- Some other corporations are audited by private professional auditors who are appointed by the Central Government in consultation with the CAG. If necessary, the CAG can conduct a supplementary audit. Examples are Central Warehousing Corporation, Industrial Finance Corporation, and others.
- Some other corporations are subjected to private audits. In other words, their audit is done exclusively by private professional auditors and the CAG does not come into the picture at all. They submit their annual reports and accounts directly to the Parliament. Examples of such corporations are the Life Insurance Corporation of India, Reserve Bank of India, State Bank of India, Food Corporation of India, and others. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
Assess the statements about 'Shadow Banking':
1. Shadow banking refers to the unregulated banking sector.
2. It operates without access to central bank facilities.
3. Shadow banking institutions are not involved in credit intermediation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- Shadow banking refers to the unregulated banking sector, operates without access to central bank facilities, and is involved in credit intermediation.
- Shadow banking refers to financial activities outside the traditional banking sector that may lack regulatory oversight.
- Shadow banking operates without direct access to central bank facilities.
- Shadow banking institutions often engage in credit intermediation activities.
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about Capability Poverty Measure (CPM) developed by the UNDP?
1. CPM includes child malnutrition as a proxy for lack of health and nourishment.
2. Female illiteracy is included to reÀect deprivation in education and knowledge.
3. It considers male illiteracy as a key indicator of capability poverty.
4. It includes lack of access to clean drinking water as an important indicator of capability poverty.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
The CPM (introduced in Human Development Report 1996) focuses on human capabilities rather than income. It uses three indicators: Lack of nourishment: Proportion of children under 5 who are underweight. (Statement 1) Lack of healthy reproduction: Proportion of births unattended by trained personnel. Female illiteracy: As a proxy for deprivation in education/knowledge. (Statement 2)
Which of the following best describes a function of a lead bank in the context of regional credit distribution ?
The role of the lead bank is to serve as a consortium leader, coordinating the efforts of all credit institutions in assigned districts to enhance branch banking facilities and address the credit needs of the rural economy. Based on the recommendations of the Gadgil Study Group and the Nariman Committee (Banker’s Committee), the Reserve Bank of India introduced the “Lead Bank Scheme” towards the end of 1969.
In the context of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI), which one of the following statements is incorrect?
- As of March 2024, the top five countries for foreign direct investment (FDI) equity inflows into India for the financial year 2023-2024 were:.
- Netherlands: 7%
Which of the following investors/ agencies can purchase Government of India securities? I The Reserve Bank of India II. Individuals III. Financial Institutions
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A Government Security (G-Sec) is a tradable instrument issued by the Central Government or the State Governments. Such securities are short- term (usually called treasury bills, with original maturities of less than one year) or long-term (usually called Government bonds or dated securities with an original maturity of one year or more). It can be purchased by all the above.
Which of the following statements regarding Non- Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) is incorrect?
BFCs can issue debentures as part of their financial operations. While they may not accept demand deposits like traditional banks, they are authorized to issue debentures, accept deposits other than demand deposits, provide loans, and offer various financial services.
Which of the following offices or institutes releases data on the national income in India?
The National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, releases the Estimates of National Income. Recent Update: - The government has decided to merge the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) with the Central Statistics Office (CSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). The order dated 23rd May 2019 has cleared the formation of an overarching body - National Statistical Office (NSO) through the merger of the NSSO and the CSO.
Which government entity is responsible for releasing the Economic Survey annually?
In India, the Economic Survey is released by the Ministry of Finance. Specifically, it is presented by the Finance Minister of India, usually on the first day of the budget session of Parliament. The Economic Survey provides an overview of the state of the economy, including detailed assessments of various economic sectors, and it serves as a precursor to the Union Budget, offering insights and forecasts about economic trends and government policy.
Where do we find the mention of the tax called Turushkadanda?
After the death of Rampal, the Gahadwals also expanded in Bihar up to Shahabad and Gaya. In the Munger copper plate of the Gahadwal ruler Govindchandra, there is a mention of a tax called Turushkadanda. This tax was collected from the farmers here and from this, means were gathered to stop the attacks of the Turks.
In the context of economics, what does the term “Autarky” mean?
In economics, autarky refers to a nation’s complete economic self-sufficiency or independence. It describes a closed economy where a country relies solely on domestically produced goods and does not engage in trade with other nations.
Who has the authority to levy agriculture income tax in India?
In India, only State Governments have the authority to levy taxes on agricultural income. The Central Government is not permitted to impose or levy such a tax, as agricultural income is exempted from Union Income Tax under Section 10(1) of the Income Tax Act. Taxes on agricultural income fall under item no. 46 in the State List (List-II) of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution, placing them under state jurisdiction.
Which of the following is not correctly matched? Particle Explorer
1. Electron – J. J. tomson
2. Protron - James Chadwick
3. Neutron - E. Goldstein Code :
- 46 Class-9, Ch-2, Page-21 By the 19th century, it was known that the atom is not a simple and indivisible particle, but it contains at least one subatomic particle, the electron, which was discovered by J. J. Thomson had imposed it. Before information regarding the electron was obtained, E. Goldstein discovered a new radiation in 1886, which he named 'Canal Ray'. These rays were positively charged radiation, which eventually led to the discovery of other subatomic particles. The charge of these particles was equal to, but opposite to, the charge of the electron. Their mass is approximately 2000 times more than that of electrons. He was named Proton. In 1932 J. Chadwick discovered another subatomic particle, which was uncharged and equal in mass to the proton. Ultimately it was named neutron. These are present in the nucleus of all atoms except hydrogen. Generally, neutron is represented by 'n'. The mass of an atom is expressed by the sum of the masses of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus. The number of elements known so far is more than 100. Of these, 92 elements are natural while the rest are man-made.
- Most elements are solid.
- 11 elements are gases at room temperature.
- The 2 elements mercury and bromine are liquids at room temperature.
- The 2 elements mercury and bromine are liquids at room temperature. Robert Boyle was the first scientist who first used the word element in 1661. French chemist Antoine Laurent Lavoisier (1743 – 1794) first propounded the definition of an element through experiment. According to him, an element is the basic form of matter which cannot be divided into other simple substances by chemical reaction. Elements can generally be classified into metals, non-metals and metalloids.
Consider the following statements- 1. Four new cells are formed in mitosis.
2. In meiosis, two identical daughter cells are formed. Select the false statement-
The process of formation of new cells is called cell division. There are two main types of cell division processes called mitosis and meiosis. The process of cell division by which most cells divide for growth is called mitosis. In this process, each cell, which can also be called the mother cell, divides to form two identical daughter cells. The number of chromosomes in the daughter cells is the same as that of the mother cell. It helps in growth of organisms and repair of tissues. Special cells of the reproductive organs or tissues of animals and plants divide to form gametes which, after fertilization, produce offspring. This is a different type of division called meiosis in which there are two divisions respectively. When the cell divides by meiosis, four new cells are formed instead of two.
Consider the following statements- 1. The value of equivalent resistance in series is less than that of a individual resistance.
2. The equivalent resistance in parallel sequence is greater than the value of individual resistances. Select the true statement-
When several resistors are connected in series, the total resistance of the combination is equal to the sum of R1, R2, R3 and thus the resistance of the combination is greater than the resistance of any individual resistor. The reciprocal of the equivalent resistance of a group of resistances connected in parallel is equal to the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances.
Consider the following statements- 1. The loudness of sound depends on its frequency.
2. The pitch of sound depends on its amplitude. Select the true statement-
cannot see well at night. Owl eyes have a larger cornea and larger pupil, so that more light can enter the eye. Along with this, its retina contains a large number of rods and only a few cones. On the contrary, the eyes of diurnal birds have more cones and less rods. The loudness of sound depends on its amplitude.
Consider the following statements: i. Mendel is called the father of genetics. ii. Law of segregation states that each gamete receives two alleles for a trait. iii. In a monohybrid cross, Fၷ phenotypic ratio is 3 :
1. iv. The law of independent assortment works only for traits on different chromosomes. Select the group of correct statements only:
Segregation - one allele per gamete, Monohybrid - 3 : 1, Independent assortment- different chromosomes; Each gamete receives only one allele for a trait, not two. Mendel worked in a monastery and was also a mathematician Traits are controlled by genes located on chromosomes Dominant traits mask recessive traits Test cross is used to determine genotype Dihybrid cross gives 9:3:3:1 ratio Exceptions occur due to: 1. Linkage 2. Gene interaction Modern genetics includes DNA and molecular biology. Tarkash Annual PYQ Plus BPSC Concept Wallah.
Which of the following statements correctly describes Clausius’s statement of the second law of thermodynamics ?
Clausius’s statement of the second law of thermodynamics asserts that heat cannot spontaneously flow from a colder object to a hotter object without the input of external work. This meAns: that in order to transfer heat from a cold body to a hot body, some work must be done by an external agent. This statement highlights the natural direction of heat flow and the need for work to reverse this direction.
Which of the following statements correctly describes Patau’s syndrome?
lanation:- Patau’s syndrome is a severe and rare genetic disorder resulting from the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 13 in some or all of the body’s cells. This condition is also known as trisomy 13. This extra genetic material disrupts normal development, leading to severe intellectual disabilities and physical abnormalities.
Which of the following hormones are produced under the condition of stress which stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver of human beings?
Adrenaline hormone is secreted by Adrenal Gland. Adrenaline is also known as epinephrine. Adrenal gland is present in the kidney. Thyroxine: Hormone secreted by the Thyroid gland. For further details, Refer to Q. No 24 Note: Apart from the secretion of Adrenaline, the Adrenal gland also secretes “cortisol” which is called the stress hormone. It also secretes ‘Aldosterone’ which retains sodium and water to maintain and balance sufficient blood volume for circulation, hence it is also called a “Lifesaving Hormone”.
Substances that readily absorb moisture from other substances without chemically reacting with them are called
A desiccant is a hygroscopic (phenomenon of attracting and holding water molecules) material used to maintain a state of dryness. Desiccants are commonly used to keep products dry and stable. Dry desiccants can absorb moisture from the air either by physical adsorption or by chemical reaction, and thus reduce the humidity in the headspace of sealed containers. Chemistry.
Glucose is converted to ethyl alcohol by the enzyme
Glucose is converted to ethyl alcohol by Zymase. BCW Bits: Enzymes are complex nitrogenous organic compounds that are produced by living plants and animals. They are actually protein molecules of high molecular mass and forms colloidal s in water. The enzymes are, thus, termed biochemical catalysts and the phenomenon is known as biochemical catalysis. Zymase It is an enzyme complex that catalyzes the fermentation of sugar into ethanol and carbon dioxide. It occurs naturally in yeasts. Zymase activity varies among yeast strains. It was first isolated from the yeast cell in 1897 by a German chemist named Eduard Buchner who fermented sugar in the laboratory without living cells, leading to the 1907 Nobel Prize in Chemistry.
The direction of current in an electric circuit is-
The roots of aquatic plants are very small in size. The stem of these plants is long, hollow and light. The stem grows up to the surface of the water, while the leaves and flowers remain floating on the surface of the water. Some aquatic plants remain completely submerged in water. All parts of such plants grow in water. The leaves of some of these plants are narrow and thin ribbon-like. It bends easily in flowing water. An electric circuit shows the entire path of electric current between the two terminals of an electric cell. The bulb glows only when electric current flows in the circuit. In an electric circuit, the direction of electric current is from the positive (+) terminal of the cell towards the negative (-) terminal.
Recently, where was the first Nuclear Energy Summit held?
Leaders from 34 countries convened in Brussels for the Nuclear Energy Summit on March 21. Organized by the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) and Belgium, the summit aimed to explore strategies for leveraging nuclear power in achieving net-zero emissions and sustainable development goals. Following COP28, where over 20 countries pledged to increase nuclear energy use, the summit emphasized practical steps for deployment and financing. Technical panels delved into maximizing nuclear energy’s potential.
What is the main cause of the visual defect known as myopia ?
Myopia, also known as nearsightedness, is a common refractive error where distant objects appear blurry while close objects can be seen clearly. The primary cause of myopia is when the eyeball is too long, or the cornea is too curved. This causes light entering the eye to focus in front of the retina rather than directly on it, resulting in a blurred image for distant objects.
On heating, the resistance of a semiconductor
When a semiconductor is heated its resistance decreases. (When a conductor is heated its resistance increases). With increase in temperature, outermost electron acquires energy and thus greater number of bonds inside the semiconductor are broken. Hence a large number of electrons come out from those bonds. As a result the number of charge carriers increases leading to increase in its conductivity and consequently the resistance decreases. BCW Bits: Semiconductor: Semiconductors are the materials which have a conductivity between conductors and insulators. These materials are used basically in the solid state electronic devices like diode, transistor, ICs, etc. Conductors (mostly Metals) have low resistivity; insulators have very high resistivity, while semiconductors have intermediate values of resistivity. Semiconductors are elemental (Si, Ge) as well as compound (GaAs, CdS, etc.)
Which of the following is a luminous body ?
- A luminous body is one that emits its own light. The Sun is a luminous body because it generates light through nuclear fusion in its core. In contrast, the Moon and Earth do not produce their own light; they reflect light from the Sun, and a comet also reflects sunlight rather than emitting its own light.
- Refraction is the bending of light as it passes from one medium to another with a different density, such as from air into water. This change in direction occurs because light travels at different speeds in different media.
Match the following pairs (Province) (Capital)
1. Uttarapatha a. Pataliputra
2. Avantiratha b. Tosli
3. Kalinga c. Ujjayini
4. Prachyapatha d. Suvarnagiri
5. Dakshinapatha e. Taxila Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
Province Capital Uttarapatha Taxila Avantiratha Ujjayini Kalinga Tosli Dakshinapatha Suvarnagiri Prachyapatha Pataliputra.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Most rivers of North Bihar are antecedent rivers.
2. These rivers have a high tendency for lateral erosion. Choose the correct option.
Most rivers of North Bihar, such as the Kosi, Gandak, and Burhi Gandak, are Himalayan consequent rivers.
What is the position of Bihar after the separation of Jharkhand? Consider the following statements:
1. Longitudinal extension remains the same
2. Latitudinal extension reduced by 2ƒ 30ƍ 3. It comprises 54.15% area of undivided Bihar How many of the statements given above are correct? 175 Bihar Special
Jharkhand was carved out from the southern part of Bihar on 15 November 2000. After this separation, Bihar lost most of its mineral-rich plateau region, forests, and industrial belt, while the remaining Bihar became largely a plain-dominated agricultural state. This political division also affected the geographical dimensions of Bihar. Bihar mainly lost its southern territory during bifurcation, while its east-west spread did not change significantly. Therefore, the longitudinal extent remained almost unchanged. Bihar did lose its southern extension after Jharkhand was separated, but the reduction was not as large as 2ƒ30ƍ. Bihar now comprises 54.15% area of undivided Bihar. After bifurcation, the remaining Bihar retained a little more than half of the area of old Bihar, while Jharkhand occupied the remaining portion. BCW Bits: Present Bihar has 38 districts. Bihar is mainly an alluvial plain state after bifurcation. Most mineral-rich areas of old Bihar went to Jharkhand. Chotanagpur Plateau is now largely in Jharkhand. Ganga River divides Bihar into North and South Bihar. Bihar is one of the most densely populated states of India. Major industries lost by Bihar after bifurcation included steel and mining sectors. Present Bihar economy is agriculture-dominated. Jharkhand became India’s 28th state.
Consider the following statements :
1. Recently, ‘Avada Group’ successfully commissioned a 50 MW solar plant in Jamui district.
2. In 2022, Sutlej Solar Energy Vidyut Nigam Limited (SEVNL) signed a MoU with Power Distribution Companies of Bihar to install 200 MW Solar Power Plant in Banka and Jamui.
3. Solar energy is being promoted in Bihar as part of the ‘Jal Jeevan Hariyali campaign’ and Saat Nischay program.
Which of the above statements are correct?
- Recently, ‘Avada Group’ successfully commissioned Bihar’s largest solar energy power project of 50 MW in the Banka district of Bihar. With the commissioning of this new 50 MW solar power plant, the total solar capacity of Bihar has increased to 181.1 MW. In 2022, A MoU was signed between Sutlej Solar Energy Vidyut Nigam Limited (SEVNL) and Bihar State Power Holding Company Limited (BSPHCL), North Bihar Power Distribution Company Limited (NBPDCL) and South Bihar Power Distribution Company Limited (SBPDCL)to install 200 MW Solar Power Plant in Banka (75 MW) and Jamui (125 MW). The promotion of solar energy in Bihar is part of the ‘Jal Jeevan Hariyali’ campaign and the Saat Nischay program.
- Recently, Bihar Museum, in collaboration with Cardiff University, UK, and Bihar Heritage Development Society, Patna, is organising a workshop and podium discussion on the Xuanzang. This International discussion is an output of a project titled ‘Xuanzang Trail’, which was initiated by Cardiff University, UK, and Bihar Heritage Development Society, Patna, in 2019. The workshop discussed the outputs of projects by speakers from the United Kingdom and India, and the podium discussion will lead to the future aims of this project.
Neena Singh has been appointed as the first woman Director General of the Central Industrial Security Force, she hails from which district of Bihar?
Neena Singh, a resident of Darbhanga district, has been appointed Director General of the Central Industrial Security Force . She is the first woman Director General of CISF. She was awarded the Police Medal in 2005. Earlier, Neena Singh was the first woman DG of Rajasthan and posted as Special Director General of CISF.
The Bihar Youth League was established in 1928 during a session of the Bihari Youth Conference held at which of the following places?
The Bihar Youth League was founded in November 1928 at Motihari (East Champaran, Bihar) during the session of the Bihari Students¶ Conference, under the guidance of revolutionary leader Professor Gyan Saha.
Where in Bihar has the Hindustan Urvarak & Rasayan Ltd (HURL) fertilizer plant been inaugurated by the Prime Minister?
Hindustan Urvarak & Rasayan Ltd (HURL) fertilizer plant in Barauni developed at more than Rs 9500 crore, the plant will provide affordable urea to farmers and lead to an increase in their productivity and financial stability. This will be the fourth fertilizer plant to be revived in the country.
In April 2022, a Geographical Indication (GI) tag was awarded to which of the following by the Government of India?
Makhana is obtained from the plant Euryale ferox and is widely cultivated in the Mithila region of Bihar, especially in districts such as Darbhanga, Madhubani, Sitamarhi, and Supaul. Health benefits: High in protein and fibre, Rich in calcium and antioxidants, low-fat ĺ good for heart and weight control. Bihar produces ~85–90% of India’s makhana. GI Tag protects regional identity, prevents misuse of the name, and helps in branding and exports. The government has increased focus on the makhana sector, Proposal for Makhana Board in Bihar. Budget allocations for Processing, Marketing, Export promotion. Shows the rising importance of makhana in the economy. BCW Bits: Makhana cultivation requires standing water for months. Harvesting is labour-intensive and traditional. Bihar exports makhana to countries like the USA and the Middle East. It is also called “Phool Makhana” and is used in Ayurvedic medicines. Considered a high-value cash crop. Government promotes it under agro-processing schemes Mithila Makhana received the GI tag in April 2022.
Which districts of Bihar will benefit from the Kosi Mechi Link project
Kosi Mechi Intra-State Link Project envisages diversion of part of surplus water of Kosi river for extending irrigation to Mahananda basin lying in Bihar by way of remodelling of existing Eastern Kosi Main Canal (EKMC) and extending the EKMC beyond its tail end at RD 41.30 km up to river Mechi at RD 117.50 km so that rivers Kosi and Mechi which Àow through Bihar could be linked together within Bihar. The Link Project will provide 2, 10, 516 hectares additional annual irrigation in Kharif season in Araria, Purnea, Kishanganj and Katihar districts of Bihar.
Consider the statement – I. Nepal is bordered by Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Sikkim and Uttarakhand. II. Bhutan shares its border only with West Bengal, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh. III. Bangladesh shares its border only with West Bengal, Meghalaya, Tripura and Assam. The false statement is-
Country Indian border states Outer planets- Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune Bangladesh.
Who was the leader of the Indian Rebellion of 1857 from Jagdishpur, Bihar?
Babu Kunwar Singh, son of Raja Sahibzada Singh (zamindar of Jagdishpur, which is in the present-day Bhojpur (Ara) district of Bihar) acted as a prominent leader during the revolution of 1857. He led the Indian Rebellion of 1857 in Bihar.
Bhagalpur (Bihar) city is specially known as
Bhagalpur is known as the “silk city”. Bhagalpur has been associated with the silk industry for hundreds of years and is famous all over India for its Tussar Silk & Bhagalpuri Saree. Silkworms are employed to produce the renowned Tussar Silk from which the Tussar Saree is manufactured. The Silk Institute and Agricultural University is located in the city. Bhagalpuri silk is made from cocoons of Antheraea Paphia silkworms. This species, also known as the Vanya silkworm, is native to India.
With which Kisan leader was Sahajanand Saraswati not associated?
Swami Sahajanand Saraswati was one of the most important peasant leaders of India, especially in Bihar. Originally a religious monk (swami), he later became a mass leader of farmers (kisan movement). Fought against: Zamindari system, Exploitation of peasants. Founder of organised peasant politics in Bihar. He is often called the “Father of the Kisan Movement in India” His major associations: Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha (1929)- Founded in 1929 in Bihar, led by Sahajanand Saraswati. Aim: Protect farmers from zamindar exploitation, raise voice for land rights. He was directly associated with Hunkar (Hindi Weekly)- A Hindi newspaper/weekly linked to peasant issues, used to spread awareness among farmers. Associated with Sahajanand¶s movement, Bakasht Movement- Major peasant movement in Bihar, Focus-Land taken away by zamindars (bakasht land issue), Sahajanand Saraswati was a key leader behind it. Krishak Samachar: was a Hindi publication associated with the peasant movement in Bihar during the early 20th century.
At which place the Bihar Provincial Congress Conference was held in 1920?
On the 28th July, 1920, Mahatma Gandhi announced that he would start Non-co-operation movement against the British Government from the 1st of August 1920. A significant decision was taken at the 12th session of Bihar Provincial conference which met at Bhagalpur on 28 and 29 August under the presidentship of Rajendra Prasad, who in his address in Hindi, ³Put in a strong plea for Non co-operation”.One noteworthy feature of this conference was that among its delegates a large number came from the villages. The resolution on Non co-operation was moved by Dharnidhar of Darbhanga and strongly supported by other members including Gorakh Prasad of motihari.
Which of the following parks/sanctuaries come under the project tiger in Bihar?
Project Tiger is a centrally sponsored scheme launched in 1973 to conserve the Bengal tiger and its habitat. In Bihar, the only tiger reserve under Project Tiger is Valmiki Tiger Reserve. Valmiki Tiger Reserve is located in West Champaran district of Bihar. It is the only tiger reserve in Bihar. Udaipur Wildlife Sanctuary ± Located in Gaya district, not a tiger reserve, mainly for deer and birds. Bhimbandh Wildlife Sanctuary ± Located in Munger district, known for various species, but not under Project Tiger.
Where was the first Urban Haat of Bihar opened?
The Chief Minister of Bihar inaugurated the First Urban Haat, also known as Mithila Haat in the Madhubani district. Because of its location along the East-West Corridor (NH-57), visitors will be able to easily access Mithila Haat, the famous facility that has been built. World-famous Mithilanchal paintings, Craft Court, Boating (in the pond), Food Court, Multipurpose Hall, Open Theater for folk songs (of Mithilanchal), and dance performances and other cultural festivals are organized in this haat.
According to Bihar economy survey 2023-24 total road density of Bihar is-
Bihar had a total road density of 3166.9 km per 1,000 sq. km of geographical area and ranked third after Kerala and West Bengal in the country.
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GS Mock Test II | 100 MCQs with Explanations
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