GS Mock Test IV for BPSC & Bihar Exams: 100 MCQs with Answers & Explanations
Practice 100 General Studies MCQs with click-to-reveal answers and detailed explanations for BPSC CCE, BPSC TRE, Bihar SSC and Bihar Daroga exams. Covers History, Indian Polity, Geography, Economics, General Science and Bihar Special GK.
Subjects covered
- Indian History
- Indian Polity & Constitution
- Geography
- Indian Economy
- General Science
- Bihar History & Geography
- Bihar Economy, Polity & Culture
- Bihar Special GK
- Important General Studies Facts
Ideal for: BPSC CCE, BPSC TRE, Bihar SSC, Bihar Police / Bihar Daroga and other Bihar competitive examinations.
About this mock test
Test and improve your General Studies preparation with this comprehensive 100-question GS Mock Test designed for BPSC CCE, BPSC TRE, Bihar SSC, Bihar Daroga and other Bihar government examinations. The test covers the most important areas of General Studies, including Ancient, Medieval and Modern Indian History, Indian Polity, Geography, Indian Economy, General Science and Bihar Special GK.
Each question is followed by a click-to-reveal answer and explanation, allowing you to attempt the question independently before checking the correct answer. The explanations are designed to help you understand the underlying concept rather than simply memorising the answer.
Use this mock test to assess your preparation, identify weak areas, revise important facts and improve accuracy and speed before the examination. The questions are structured around the type of factual, conceptual and analytical questions commonly encountered in competitive examinations.
Consider the following statements regarding Indus Valley Civilization?
1. Dholavira has been recognized as India’s 40th UNESCO World Heritage Site
2. Rakhigarhi is largest Indian site of Indus valley civilization
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
lanation:- Statement 1 is correct- Dholavira, an important archaeological site of the Indus Valley Civilization located in Gujarat, was indeed recognized as India’s 40th UNESCO World Heritage Site in July 2021. Statement 2 is correct- Rakhigarhi, located in Haryana, is the largest known site of the Indus Valley Civilization in India, even larger than Mohenjodaro in terms of area.
Which of the following was the causes for the decline of Jainism in India?
1. Absence of royal patronage
2. Split amongst Jains as Mahayana and Hinayana
3. Lack of missionary zeal
4. Factionalism
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- Factors responsible for decline of Jainism in India.
- Absence of royal patronage.
- Split amongst Jains as Digambaras and Swetambaras.
- Lack of missionary zeal.
- The severity of practices.
- Spread of Buddhism as a rival faith led to the decline of Jainism.
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding trade during the Sangam period?
- Hunter-gatherers moved from place to place. There are many reasons for this.
- First, if they had stayed at one place for a long time, they would have eaten up all the available plant and animal resources. Therefore, they would have had to go elsewhere in search of food.
Which of the following statements is true regarding Maitreya in Buddhism ?
lanation:- In Buddhist tradition, Maitreya is a bodhisattva who is prophesied to be the future Buddha. He is believed to be the successor to Gautama Buddha and is expected to appear on Earth in the distant future to achieve complete enlightenment and teach pure dharma (the teachings of Buddhism). Maitreya is particularly significant in Mahayana Buddhism.
In Indian art, the construction of ‘Stupa’, ‘Chaitya’ and ‘Vihara’ is related to which of the following?
Stupa, Chaitya and viharas are part of Buddhist and Jaina monastic complexes but the largest number belongs to the Buddhist religion. A stupa is a dirt burial mound faced with stone, often containing relics or religious objects and used as a place of meditation. Initially stupas were Buddha’s relic places. Then it got extended to his followers as well and gradually stupa itself became an object of worship. The Great Stupa in Sanchi, India, is the earliest known stupa, dating back to the fourth century BCE. The largest stupa in the world is Borobudur in Indonesia. The Viharas were the monastery where the monks used to live and it acted as their accommodation during the rainy days. The earliest viharas were made of wood, and then of brick. Some were even in caves that were dug out in hills, especially in western India. Viharas can be found in caves like Ajanta, Ellora (in Aurangabad, Maharashtra) and Kanheri caves. Chaityas were the places of worship and assembly of the monks and it consists of stupa within the structure at one end. They are usually carved out of rocks as cave structures. Examples include the Bhaja caves and the Karle caves (Lonavla, Maharashtra)
The Huna ruler Mihirakula was defeated by which of the following?
In 528, Mihirakula was defeated in the Battle of Sondani by Yashodharman, the Hindu king of the Aulikara dynasty. This significant event, which marked the end of the Alchon Hun era in India, is partly documented in the Mandsaur pillar inscription of Yashodharman.
Choose the incorrect statement related to Dharmachakra Pravartana.
- From Uruvela (present Bodh Gaya) Buddha came to Sarnath (Rishipatnam or Mrigadav). Here he gave his first sermon to five Brahmin ascetics, which is known as Dharmachakra Pravartan in Buddhist texts. Buddha first made two Shudras named ‘Tapassu’ and ‘Bhallik’ followers of Buddhism. When Buddha reached Rajgriha, Bimbisara welcomed him and donated Venuvan Vihar. Sariputra, Mahamodgalyana, Upali, Abhay etc. became his disciples in Rajgriha itself.
- It is mentioned in Mahavansh Tika that Chanakya was a Brahmin resident of Takshila. Chanakya was brought up and educated under the care of his mother. It is said in ‘Mudrarakshasa’ that King Nanda removed Chanakya from the respected position given to him in the court. On this, Chanakya swore that “he will take revenge from Nanda by destroying his family and lineage completely. According to ‘Brihatkatha Kosh’, the name of Chanakya’s wife was Yashomati. Chandragupta and Chanakya together eradicated the Nanda dynasty and laid the foundation of the Maurya dynasty.
The beginning of Vikram Samvat is seen to be associated with which ruler?
The era beginning in the 58 BCE is traditionally associated with Gupta king, Chandragupta II, who had founded it as a mark of victory over the Shakas and assumed the title of Vikramaditya.
The famous Chinese pilgrim Fa-Hien visited India during the reign of (the 63rd BPSC)
Fa-Hien (337-422 CE) also known as Fa Xian was a Chinese Buddhist pilgrim who came to the subcontinent about 1600 years ago. He came during the reign of Chandragupta II of the Gupta Empire to visit places associated with the life of the Buddha as well as famous monasteries. He studied the Sanskrit language for about three years in the city of Patliputra. He recorded his observations in a travelogue titled Fo-Kwo-Ki (A Record of Buddhistic Kingdoms). He travelled to many cities associated with the life of the Buddha – Sravasti, Sarnath, Bodh Gaya, Vaishali, Rajgir, etc and wrote about Taxila, Pataliputra, Mathura, and Kannauj in Middle India.
Consider the following statements:
1. The reign of Aurangzeb is generally considered to signify the beginning of the end of Mughal rule in India.
2. Muhammad Shah’s reign witnessed the establishment of the independent states of Hyderabad, Bengal, Awadh, and Punjab.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
Statement 1 is correct:The first half of the 18th century saw the decline of the mighty Mughals. The reign of Aurangzeb (1658-1707) is generally considered to signify the beginning of the end of Mughal rule in India. Aurangzeb’s misguided policies weakened the stability of the state and the decline gained momentum after his death due to a war of succession and weak rulers. Statement 2 is correct:Though Muhammad Shah ruled for a long spell of 29 years (1719-48), a revival of the imperial fortunes did not take place as he was an incompetent ruler.Muhammad Shah’s reign witnessed the establishment of the independent states of Hyderabad, Bengal, Awadh, and Punjab.
Consider the following statements about Bhakti saint Ramananda:
1. He substituted the worship of Rama in place of Vishnu.
2. He was deeply influenced by the writings of Kabir.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
The most popular argument regarding the origin of the universe is the Big Bang Theory. It is also called the ‘Expanding Universe Hypothesis’. Edwin Hubble, in 1920, provided evidence that the universe is expanding. As the time passes, the galaxies move further and further apart. Similarly, the distance between the galaxies is also found to be increasing and thereby, the universe is considered to be expanding. The scientists believe that though the space between the galaxies is increasing, observations do not support the expansion of the galaxies.
Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the below mentioned dynasties?
- The Vijayanagar Empire (1336-1565AD) is now a part of the modern states of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. They broke away from the Delhi Sultanate, established an independent state in Karnataka, and established the capital city Vijayanagar on the banks of river Tungabhadra in 133. Their dynasty was called the Sangama dynasty. Harihara and Bukka were helped and inspired by a contemporary scholar and a saint Vidyaranya for the establishment of their kingdom.
- Vijayanagar was ruled by three different dynasties between 1336 and 1565,.
- Sangama, who remained in power till 1485.
- The Saluva who remained in power till 1503.
- It was followed by Tuluvas.
- The last dynasty was the Aravidu dynasty, which ruled till the seventeenth century.
Select the true statement about South Indian Bhakti saints.
1. Nayanar was Shaiv saint.
2. Alwar was a Vaishnav saint.
3. These saints were only people of Pulaiyar and Panars castes who were considered ‘Untouchables’. Code :
The seventh to ninth centuries saw the emergence of new religious movements, led by the Nayanars (saints devoted to Shiva) and Alvars (saints devoted to Vishnu) who came from all castes including those considered “untouchable” like the Pulaiyar and the Panars. They were sharply critical of the Buddhists and Jainas and preached ardent love of Shiva or Vishnu as the path to salvation. The Nayanars and Alvars went from place to place composing exquisite poems in praise of the deities enshrined in the villages they visited, and set them to music.
During the Delhi Sultanate, the designation 'Muqaddam or Chaudhari' was used for
Muqaddam or Chaudhari was a term that referred to a village headman during the sultanate period. The state was divided into various administrative units such as: Unit Headed by Iqta (province) Muqtis or walis (governor) Shiq (District) Shiqdar Paragana (Sub district) Amil Village Chaudhari or Muqaddam or khut Test Your Knowledge.
The remains of the Vijayanagara Empire are found in (63rd BPSC)
Vijayanagara or “city of victory” was the name of both a city and an empire. The empire was founded in the fourteenth century. In its heyday, it stretched from the river Krishna in the north to the extreme south of the peninsula. Two brothers, Harihara and Bukka, founded the Vijayanagara Empire in 1336. Krishnadeva Raya (ruled 1509- 29) is considered the most influential ruler of this empire. Colonel Colin Mackenzie, an engineer, and antiquarian brought the ruins of Hampi to light in 1800. The first survey map of the site was prepared by him. Hampi was the capital of the Vijayanagar Empire which was located on the banks of the Tungabhadra River. The Virupaksha Temple is located at Hampi, Bengaluru in Karnataka. Hampi is also included in the list of UNESCO World Heritage Sites. Ancient History.
Who among the following catered to the needs of the Royal household during the Mughal period?
Mir Saman (also known as Khan-i-Saman) was the o൶cer in charge of the imperial household, responsible for the supply of goods, provisions, and the management of royal workshops (karkhanas) during the Mughal period. He handled the procurement, storage, and maintenance of items for the palace, including furniture, textiles, and precious objects. Mir Bakshi was head of the military department. Wakil-i-Mutalaq was the Prime Minister. Diwan-i-Khalsa was involved in revenue administration.
After the death of Dudu Bibi, who became the real ruler of Bihar?
In October 1528, after the death of Sultan Mohammad of Bihar, his queen, Dudu Bibi, took on the role of regent. Sher Khan was appointed as her deputy governor, which allowed him to start consolidating his power in the region. Following the death of Dudu Bibi in early 1530, Sher Khan, who later became known as Sher Shah Suri, effectively became the de facto ruler of Bihar by assuming the role of regent for Jalal Khan.
With reference to Lord Macaulay’s famous ‘education minute', consider the following statements:
1. It settled the orientalist-anglicist debate on education in favor of the anglicists.
2. Lord Charles Metcalfe became the first Governor General to pass the resolution implementing Macaulay’s ‘education minute.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Bihar: A powerful no-chaukidari tax agitation replaced the salt satyagraha (owing to physical constraints in making salt). Tamil Nadu: C. Rajagopalachari organised a march from Thiruchirapalli to Vedaranniyam on the Tanjore (or Thanjavur) coast to break the salt law.
Consider the following statements regarding the Swadeshi Movement:
1. V.O. Chidambaram Pillai formed the “Swadeshi Sangam” in Tamil Nadu.
2. BG Tilak declared “Political freedom is the lifebreath of a nation”.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct:In Tirunelveli, Tamil Nadu, V.O. Chidambaram Pillai, Subramania Siva, and several lawyers established the Swadeshi Sangam, which ignited local enthusiasm and political awareness. These organisations fostered political consciousness among the masses through activities such as magic lantern lectures, swadeshi songs, physical and moral training for members, social initiatives during famines and epidemics, establishment of schools, promotion of swadeshi crafts, and the setting up of arbitration courts. Statement 2 is incorrect: The militant nationalists endeavoured to elevate the anti partition and Swadeshi Movement into a mass struggle, advocating for India’s independence from foreign rule. Aurobindo famously proclaimed, “Political freedom is the lifebreath of a nation.”.
How many of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1. Pune Sarvajanik Sabha G.V.Joshi
2. Indian National Congress A. O. Hume
3. London Indian Association Dadabai Naoroji
4. Madras Native Association G. L.Chetty
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- The Pune Sarvajanik Sabha was one of the strongest political organizations of 19th century India. It was launched on 02 April 1870 in the Pune district of Maharashtra. It was the result of the labour of many great men like G V Joshi, S H Sathe, and S H Chiplonkar.
- Indian National Congress(INC) was formed in 1885, by Allan Octavian Hume, a retired British civil servant. Other founding members include Dadabhai Naoroji and Dinshaw Wacha. The first session of the Indian National Congress was held in December 1885 in Bombay with seventy two delegates.
- The London India Society was founded in London in March 1865 under the leadership of Dadabhai Naoroji and W.C. Bonnerjee.The purpose of the organisation was to promote awareness of the rising Indian social and political aspirations in England.
- Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty founded the Madras Native Association in 1852. It was the first Indian political organization in the Madras Presidency to vent for the rights of Indians.
Who of the following were sent to the court of the Shah of Persia (Iran) as British envoy during Lord Wellesley’s period from India? (1) John Malcolm (2) Mehdi Ali Khan (3) Raja Shiv Prasad (Use the following code for the selection of correct answer)
Lord Wellesley served as Governor-General from 1798 to 1805. During this period, Britain was worried that Napoleon might try to attack India through Persia and Afghanistan. To prevent French inÀuence in West Asia, Wellesley strengthened diplomatic relations with the Shah of Persia.For this purpose, envoys were sent from India to the Persian court. Among them, John Malcolm and Mehdi Ali Khan were important representatives. John Malcolm was a British o൶cer, diplomat, and historian who played a major role in Anglo-Persian relations. He was sent to Persia to secure political cooperation against possible French inÀuence. His mission was part of Britain’s broader strategic policy to protect India. Mehdi Ali Khan also participated in diplomatic communication with Persia during this period. Such diplomatic missions were important because the British East India Company increasingly acted not just as a trading body but as a political and imperial power managing international relations. BCW Bits: Lord Wellesley introduced the Subsidiary Alliance system, which forced Indian rulers to accept British troops. Hyderabad was the first state to accept Subsidiary Alliance. Tipu Sultan was defeated during Wellesley’s period in the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War. Anglo-French rivalry strongly inÀuenced early British expansion in India. Raja Shiv Prasad (1823–1895), widely known by the title Sitara-e-Hind ("Star of India"), was a prominent 19th-century Indian scholar, linguist, and historian, who played a foundational role in the promotion of Hindi education, literature, and the Nagari script during British rule. To counter the rising popularity of the INC, he proposed creating a pro-British organization like ‘United Indian Patriotic Association’ and ‘Indian Loyal Association’.
Which Indian freedom fighter said, ³We will not achieve any success in our labour if we croak once a year like a frog”?
Tilak believed that merely holding annual meetings and making petitions would never force the British to grant rights to Indians. The phrase “croak once a year like a frog” was a sarcastic attack on the passive politics of the Moderates. According to Tilak, political struggle required continuous public mobilization, mass awakening, boycott movements, and assertive nationalism. Moderates like Dadabhai Naoroji, Gopal Krishna Gokhale, and Pherozeshah Mehta, believed in constitutional methods such as petitions, prayers, memorandums, and discussions with British authorities. They had faith in British justice and thought reforms could gradually be achieved through peaceful persuasion. Whereas Extremists like Lal-Bal-Pal (Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal) supported direct confrontation, mass mobilization, Swadeshi (promoting indigenous industries), and the boycott of British goods and institutions. BCW Bits: Bal Gangadhar Tilak is famously known as the "Father of Indian Unrest". This title was given to him by the British journalist and author Sir Valentine Chirol in his 1910 book Indian Unrest, due to Tilak's relentless efforts to mobilize the masses and his fierce opposition to British colonial rule. Tilak (popularly called “Lokmanya Tilak) used newspapers like Kesari (Marathi) and Mahratta (English) to spread nationalist ideas among ordinary people. Tilak wrote Gita Rahasya and The Arctic Home in the Vedas Tilak organized Ganapati Festival and Shivaji Festival, for mass political awakening. Lala Lajpat Rai was known as the “Punjab Kesari” and played a major role protests against the Simon Commission. He was injured during a police lathi charge in 1928 and later died from those injuries. Lala Lajpat Rai founded the Servants of the People Society (Lok Sevak Mandal) in November 1921 in Lahore, with Mahatma Gandhi inaugurating the society. Moderates are often called the “Political Mendicants” by extremist critics because of their petition-based politics. Aurobindo Ghosh was associated with the revolutionary newspaper Bande Mataram. Bipin Chandra Pal is known as the “Father of Revolutionary Thoughts in India.”.
Which of the following pairs is correctly matched regarding the Battle of Buxar (1764) ?
The Battle of Buxar, fought on October 22, 1764, in present-day Buxar, Bihar, was a significant conflict between the British East India Company and the combined forces of Bengal’s Nawab Mir Qasim, Awadh’s Nawab Shuja-ud-Daula, and Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II.
Stafford Cripps, a member of the War Cabinet, was dispatched to India in 1942 to discuss the British Government’s Draft Declaration on the Constitution of India with representative Indian leaders from all parties. Who among the following was/were the official congress negotiators with the cripps mission?
- The Cripps Mission was sent to discuss the British Government’s Draft Declaration on the Constitution of India with representative Indian leaders from all parties.
- However the Cripps Mission failed and the issue of India’s constitution was postponed until the end of the war.
- Jawaharlal Nehru and Maulana Azad were the official congress negotiators with the Cripps mission.
Which among the following leaders is associated with Tolstoy Fam and Phoenix Farm ?
The Tolstoy Farm, established in 1910 and named by Gandhi’s associate, Herman Kallenbach, after the Russian writer and moralist Leo Tolstoy, was both an educational experiment and a community for the families of satyagrahis. It aimed to provide them with a means of self-sustenance. This was Gandhi’s second such initiative; the first was the Phoenix Farm, set up in 1904 in Natal. The Phoenix Farm was inspired by Gandhi’s reading of John Ruskin’s Unto This Last which critiqued capitalism and praised a simple life of love, labor, and human dignity.
Who propounded the doctrine of 'Passive Resistance'?
The theory of 'Passive Resistance' was propounded by Aurobindo Ghosh, who is known as father of Indian Extremism. In a place of "Prayer", Petition", 'Protest" and "Please", he advocated the more radical policy of boycott. He wrote two books i.e. 'New Lamp for old' and the other being, "Savitri".
On which day was Mangal Pandey hanged?
(Class 8/Chapter 5/page - 55) Mangal Pandey was a soldier in the 34th Regiment of Bengal Native Infantry in Barrackpore Cantonment. He was hanged on 8 April 1857 for attacking his servants.
What was the purpose of Butler Committee which was formed in 1927?
The Harcourt Butler Committee, also known as the Indian States Committee, was a three-member committee appointed by the British government in 1927 to investigate and clarify the relationship between the paramount power of the British Raj in India and the rulers of the Princely States.
The recently released movie, “Ae Watan Mere Watan”, is based on the life of ?
- Ae Watan Mere Watan is a 2024 Hindi-language historical biographical film about India's struggle for freedom in 1942.
- It is based on the life of Usha Mehta, a brave young girl who starts an underground radio station to spread the message of unity, setting off a thrilling chase with the British authorities during the Quit India movement.
- It is written and directed by Kannan Iyer and produced by Karan Johar. Sara Ali Khan has played the role of Usha Mehta.
- Usha Mehta in 1998 was honoured by the Government of India with Padma Vibhushan, the 2nd highest civilian award in the country.
Consider the following statements regarding Council of Ministers
1. President cannot reconsider the advice tendered by the Council of Ministers
2. The advice tendered by Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- Statement 1 is incorrect. According to the Article 74 there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. However, the President may require the Council of Ministers to reconsider such advice and the President shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration.
- Statement 2 is correct. The advice tendered by Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court.
With reference to the Rules Committee of Lok Sabha which of the following statements are correct?
1. The Committee consists of 15 members, including the Chairman.
2. The quorum to constitute a sitting of the Committee is five members.
3. The term of the office of the committee is two years.
4. The Speaker is the ex-officio Chairman of the Committee.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- Statement 1 and 4 are correct. The Committee consists of 15 members, including the Chairman. The Speaker is the ex-officio Chairman. The Speaker nominates members to the Committee. If the Deputy Speaker is not a member of the Committee, he is invited to all the sittings of the Committee.
- Statement 2 is correct. A quorum is the minimum number of people needed to hold meetings or make decisions during certain meetings. The Minimum Number of People required to hold a sitting of the committee (Quorum) is five members. If the quorum is not met, the Chairman (Speaker) may either suspend the sitting until there is a quorum or adjourn the sitting to some future date.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The Committee does not have any fixed term of Office, and it continues in Office until the Speaker reconstructs it.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament of India can add a particular law to the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of any law enshrined in the Ninth Schedule cannot be tested by any court and no decision can be taken thereon.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
The Ninth Schedule and Articles 31-A and 31-B were added to the Constitution by the 1st Amendment Act, 1951. Special laws (e.g. land reform laws) may be placed by Parliament in the Ninth Schedule, which are intended to be immune from judicial review. Article 31B states that the rules and regulations mentioned in the Ninth Schedule shall not be deemed to be void on the ground that they are inconsistent with, or take away or abridge any of the provisions of Part III and the rights conferred. But in 2007, the Supreme Court, in I.R. Coelho v. Tamil Nadu, made it clear that Parliament is empowered to insert a particular law in the Ninth Schedule, but it is not beyond the scope of judicial scrutiny.
The United Nations had made the Universal Declaration of Human Rights on 10 December 1948. By which organization of the United Nations was the above announcement made?
On 10 December 1948, the General Assembly of the United Nations adopted and implemented the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. The text of the Preamble to this Declaration is given below. Taking this historic action further, the General Assembly called on all Member States to promulgate the text of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. The General Assembly called for it to be circulated, displayed, read and read, especially in schools and other educational institutions, regardless of the political situation in the country or region.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding Judicial Activism ?
lanation:- Judicial activism occurs when courts go beyond merely interpreting the law and take an active role in shaping public policy and addressing social issues. This may involve interpreting constitutional rights in broad terms, issuing rulings that affect legislation, or directing the executive branch on matters of governance. Judicial activism often manifests in decisions on public interest litigations (PILs) and cases involving human rights, environmental issues, or governmental accountability.
Which among the following are the examples of asymmetry in Indian federalism? (1) Representation of different states in Rajya Sabha. (2) Provisions with regard to administration of tribal areas under Fifth and Sixth Schedule. (3) Composition of NITI Aayog. (4) Provisions for Union Territories as federal units.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Federalism is a system in which power is divided between a central authority and constituent units, which, in India, is termed "quasi-federal" by scholar K.C. Wheare due to its strong unitary bias. Unlike the USA, which is a "coming together" federation with symmetric federalism (equal powers for all states), India features asymmetric federalism where certain regions have special provisions under the Fifth and Sixth Schedules. Statements (1), (2), and (4) are established examples of asymmetry in Indian federalism, whereas statement (3) represents a mechanism of cooperative, uniform federalism. Asymmetric federalism occurs when different constituent units of a federation are granted unequal powers or status. This is evident in: Representation in Rajya Sabha (1): Unlike federal systems in which all states have equal seats (as in the US Senate), India allocates seats based on population, giving states varying levels of inÀuence in the upper house. Special Provisions for Tribal Areas (2): The Fifth and Sixth Schedules create unique administrative structures for specific regions to protect tribal interests, deviating from the standard state governance model. Union Territories as Federal Units (4): Union Territories do not have the same constitutional status or autonomy as States; some have legislatures while others are governed directly by the Centre, creating a multi- tiered federal structure. Statement (3) is excluded because NITI Aayog is designed to foster "Cooperative Federalism" by providing a common platform for all States and Union Territories to interact with the Centre on equal terms on policy and development matters.
The Union Cabinet has recently approved a tribal University named the Sammakka Sarakka Central Tribal University. It is located in ?
- The Union cabinet has recently approved a tribal university named the Sammakka Sarakka Central Tribal University. Key Points regarding the university are :.
- It is located in Mulugu, Telangana.
- Sammakka Saralamma Jatara - A biennial festival in Mulugu. It is often referred to as the Kumbh Mela of the tribals.
- Sammakka-Sarakka temple is a part of the Tribal Circuit under the Swadesh Darshan Scheme.
- The UNESCO World Heritage Site of Ramappa Temple is located about 15 km from Mulugu.
Recently, the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) has stressed on the need to implement the Idate Commission report. The report is primarily focused on which of the following aspects ?
- The National Commission for Denotified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Tribes (Idate Commission) was constituted in 2014 under Bhiku Ramji Idate.
- Recommendations of the report include - 1. Set up a permanent commission for Nomadic, semi- nomadic, and DeNotified Tribes (NTs, SNTs, and DNTs). 2. Identify challenges faced by NTs, SNTs, and DNTs owing to the stigma imposed by the enactment of the Criminal Tribes Act, 1872, and later by the Habitual Offenders Act, 1952. 3. Repeal the Habitual Offenders Act, 1952. 4. Non-inclusion of DNTs/NTs/SNTs under the SC/ST/ OBC formulation of specific policies etc.
Who was the first woman to become a Chief Minister of any state in India??
Suchita Kriplani was the first woman to become a Chief Minister of any state in India. She served as the Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh from 1963 to 1967. Kriplani was a prominent freedom fighter and played a significant role in the Indian independence movement. She was also a member of the Constituent Assembly and a key figure in shaping post-independence India. Her leadership and contributions to Indian politics are well-regarded.
Who was the second Chief Minister of Bihar?
Deep Narayan singh served as the second Chief Minister of Bihar from 1 February 1961 to 18 February 1961. He succeeded Sri Krishna Sinha, who was the first Chief Minister of the state. Jha’s tenure was marked by efforts to improve the state’s agricultural sector and administrative efficiency.
Legislative Council can be constituted or dissolved in any state by:-
- The composition or dissolution of the Legislative Council in a state can be done by the Parliament on the recommendation of the Legislative Assembly.
- The establishment of the Legislative Council is defined in Article 169 of the Constitution of India. Currently 28 states out of these, only 6 states have Legislative Council. These states are:- Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Telangana, Maharashtra, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh. There are 75 seats in the Bihar Legislative Council and 243 seats in the Legislative Assembly.
Under which articles of Constitution of India are given the Fundamental rights for citizens?
- There are six fundamental rights of Indian Constitution along with the constitutional articles related to them are mentioned below:.
- Right to Equality (Article 14-18)
- Right to Freedom (Article 19-22)
- Right against Exploitation (Article 23-24)
- Right to Freedom of Religion (Article 25-28)
- Cultural and Educational Rights (Article 29-30)
- Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32)
To whom is the Council of Ministers of India collectively responsible?
of key ministries. Cabinet ministers meet to take The biggest thing is that the Lok Sabha controls decisions in the name of the Council of Ministers. In this way the Cabinet is the top group of the Council of Ministers. There are about 25 ministers in it. Ministers of State with independent charge are usually in charge of smaller ministries. He attends cabinet meetings only when specially invited. not have this power.
Consider the following statements about cyclones in the Arabian Sea:
1. Cyclones form over warm ocean waters where moist air rises, creating a low-pressure system that intensifies due to the Coriolis effect.
2. Cyclones in the Arabian Sea tend to be less intense compared to those in the Bay of Bengal.
3. Cyclone Asna, named by India, is the most recent cyclonic storm in the Arabian Sea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Cyclone Asna, named by Pakistan, means “the one to be acknowledged or praised.” Hence, statement 3 is not correct 36. Answer: A. Almora UTTRAKHAND GK Formation 09 November 2000 Capital Dehradun Population 1,00,86,292 Area 53,483 sq. km. Total Districts.
Consider the following statements in context of the significance of algae:
1. Nostoc is used to make jellies and custard.
2. Ulva is a green seaweed which is edible and nutritious in nature.
3. Agar Agar helps to convert Nitrogen gas into usable form for plants.
Which of the above mentioned statements are correct?
- Nostoc / blue-green algae are prokaryotes that perform photosynthesis. They are found in freshwater habitats. They have the ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen by converting nitrogen into ammonia. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
- Ulva is considered one of the most usable seaweeds, with applications that include its use in food, agriculture, pharmacology and medicine. It is edible and is often called 'Sea Lettuce'. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.
- Agar Agar is a jelly-like substance used as an ingredient in desserts throughout Asia. Agar agar is used as a thickener for soups, in fruit preserves, ice cream, and other desserts. Therefore, statement 3 is incorrect.
Consider the following statements for the 'Tropical Rain Forests':
1. It possess highest standing crop biomass among all biomes.
2. It has a very high nutrient storage in the soil.
Which of the above statements are correct?
- The tropical rain forests are evergreen forests which possess highest standing crop biomass among all biomes. Therefore statement 1 is correct.
- These forests are characterized by 30-40 m tall canopy structure with 4-5 strata formed by different plant species.
- Because of high rainfall, the soil of tropical rain forests are highly leached and has low base content. Therefore most of the nutrients are stored in the tall vegetation while the nutrient storage in the soil remains low. Therefore statement 2 is not correct.
- In India the tropical rain forests are discontinuously distributed along the Western Ghats and in North-eastern Himalayas.
The average ocean water temperature has been rising steadily, and it can have a severe impact on marine ecosystems and biodiversity. Increasing ocean water temperature can cause:
1. Coral bleaching
2. Ocean acidification
3. Ocean circulation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Rising ocean water temperatures have profound impacts on marine ecosystems and global climate stability: 1. CoralBleaching: Increased temperatures stress coral reefs, leading to coral bleaching and potentially widespread reef degradation. 2. Ocean Circulation: Altered ocean currents and circulation patterns affect weather patterns, precipitation, and climate regulation. 3. Ocean Acidification: Warmer waters exacerbate ocean acidification, impacting marine organisms with calcium carbonate shells or skeletons.
It is a vast mangrove forest ecosystem in the Bay of Bengal’s coastal region, spanning India and Bangladesh on the world’s largest delta formed by the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Meghna rivers. In January 2019, it was designated as a ‘Wetland of International Importance’ under the Ramsar Convention. Which of the following wetland is described in the above passage ?
It is a vast, contiguous mangrove forest ecosystem in the Bay of Bengal’s coastal region, spanning India and Bangladesh on the world’s largest delta formed by the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Meghna rivers. It houses the largest mangrove forests globally. Sundarbans National Park, established in 1984, is a core area of the tiger reserve and was designated a UNESCO World Heritage site in 1987.
The Narwapahar Mine is operated by the Uranium Corporation of India Limited.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
All the above statements are true. The details are as follows: (1) Petronet LNG Ltd. is an Indian oil and gas company formed by the government of India to import liquefi ed natural gas (LNG) and set up LNG terminals in the country. It is a joint venture company promoted by the Gas Authority of India Limited (GAIL), Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited (ONGC) and Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL) with an authorised capital. Petronet LNG Ltd has set up its fi rst LNG terminal at Dahej in Gujarat with a capacity of 17.5 million metric Tonnes per year. Another terminal with capacity 5 million tonnes per year was commissioned in Kochi (Kerala). (2) The Head Offi ce of Dredging Corporation of India is strategically located on the eastern seaboard of India at Visakhapatnam. DCI helps to ensure the continuous availability of the desired depths in shipping channels of the Major and Minor Ports, Navy, fi shing harbours and other maritime organisations. The horizons of dredging activities are fast expanding worldwide, and its services are increasing in demand and put to use in the areas of Environmental Protection, Tourism, Flood control, Irrigation, Power generation, Port development, Mining, Laying of Off shore Pipelines and so on. (3) Narwapahar Mine is the trackless uranium mine located in Jharkhand which is being operated by Uranium Corporation of India Limited.
Teesta Low Dam Project (TLDP)-III is proposed along the Teesta river. The site of the project lies in :
Teesta Low Dam Project (TLDP)- III and IV are related to West Bengal whereas the earlier two projects (i) and (ii) are related to Sikkim. Teesta river originates from Sikkim then it runs downhill through Sikkim and Darjeeling hills then meander along the plains of West Bengal and eventually enters Bangladesh where it fl ows and meets river Brahmaputra.
Which organisation recognized the Nagi bird sanctuary Site as an Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA)?
The Nagi Bird Sanctuary, located in the Jamui district of Bihar, India, is a critical site for avian conservation. BirdLife International & IBAs The Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA) designation is a global initiative led by BirdLife International. This organization uses a set of internationally agreed-upon criteria to identify sites that are critical for the long-term viability of bird populations. Nagi & Nakti: Both the Nagi and Nakti bird sanctuaries were recognized as IBAs due to their importance as wintering grounds for migratory birds, particularly those traveling along the Central Asian Flyway. While BirdLife International designated it an IBA, it is worth noting a more recent milestone: In 2024, the Nagi and Nakti Bird Sanctuaries were o൶cially designated as Ramsar Sites (Wetlands of International Importance). This designation falls under the Ramsar Convention, which is often associated with UNESCO, but the IBA tag itself remains a BirdLife International program. Biodiversity Profile Migratory Species: The sanctuary hosts species like the Bar-headed Goose, Northern Pintail, and Red-crested Pochard. Dry-Land Habitat: Unique among many bird sanctuaries, Nagi is surrounded by rocky hillocks and dry deciduous forests, providing a diverse ecosystem for both aquatic and terrestrial birds.
Which one of the following groups is the correct sequence of mountain peaks from east to west?
The correct sequence of mountain peaks from east to west is: Kanchenjunga, Everest, Annapurna, Dhaulagiri. Kanchenjunga is the third tallest mountain in the world. Three of the fi ve summits of the Kanchenjunga (main, central, and south) are situated on the boundary of the North Sikkim district in Sikkim, India and the Taplejung District in Nepal. The two other peaks are entirely situated in Taplejung District. Mt. Everest is the tallest mountain in the world above sea surface. The elevation of Mount Everest is 8,848 meters (Now 8848.86 m). The peak is situated in the Himalayas on the border of Nepal and China, which is also known as the Sagarmatha Zone. The Annapurna region is an area in central Nepal where some of the most popular treks are located. Dhaulagiri Peak is also located in Central Nepal, west of Annapurna peak.
Among the following places which one gets the least rainfall?
According to data Rainfall Statistics of India, 2019 Leh receives the least rainfall in India. The annual rainfall for the above towns is as follows : Leh - 65.5 mm (Lowest rainfall in India) Bikaner - 300.2 cm Jaisalmer - 261.3 mm (Lowest rainfall in Rajasthan) Cherrapunji - 1100 cm (Mawsynram recive the highest (2015) rainfall in the world). 9. Which one of the following places has the lowest annual rainfall ? (a) Bellary (b) Jaisalmer (c) Jodhpur (d) Leh U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2010 U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2008, 2009 Ans. (d) See the explanation of above question.
Marmugao seaport is situated in –
Marmugao seaport is an important port of Goa, located at the entrance of Zuari estuary and occupies the fi fth position in handling the traffi c. This is a major export port from where 40% of the total iron is exported from the country.
In which of the following seasons the Christmas is celebrated in Australia?
The Christmas is celebrated in Summer season in Australia because it is located in the Southern Hemisphere.The axis of the earth is tilted approximately 23 degrees. Due to this tilt, the Northern Hemisphere experience winter during December time while the Southern Hemisphere experiences summer during December time. Christmas which is popularly shown as a snowy and winter kind of festival, cannot be applied to Australia.
Which one of the following countries is the largest exporter of tea in the world?
As per FAO data, when the question was asked (year 2015) quantity & value in both China was biggest exporter. In the year 2020, in Quantity Kenya & in value china is the biggest exporter.
Mauna Loa is an active volcano in –
In Hawaiian language, Mauna Loa means the ‘Long Mountain’. It is one of the active volcanoes. Mauna Loa had its fi rst well documented eruption in 1843. It is spread over half of the Hawaii Island (USA) with a length of 120 km.
Consider the following statements about the Foreign Exchange Rate (FX Rate) in India:
1. Higher FX rate reflects appreciation of the rupee against other currencies.
2. The RBI directly intervenes in the FX market to maintain a fixed exchange rate.
3. A depreciating rupee can make exports more competitive in the global market.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A higher FX rate means one unit of rupee buys more units of foreign currency, indicating rupee appreciation. A depreciating rupee makes Indian exports cheaper in foreign markets, potentially boosting export competitiveness. Thus statement 1 and 3 are correct.
- The RBI allows market forces to determine the FX rate within a managed band, intervening only in exceptional circumstances. Thus statement 2 is incorrect.
Which of the following statements characterizes the unique aspects of India's economic growth trajectory?
1. The services sector has outpaced other sectors in growth rate since liberalization.
2. Agriculture sector has persistently employed the largest workforce in the economy.
3. Despite not being industrialized, the services sector contributes the highest share to GDP among all sectors. Choose the most appropriate option using the codes below:
India's economic evolution showcases a distinctive structural change, notably in its services sector. Post-liberalization, the services sector has exhibited rapid growth, surpassing other sectors. Despite India not being a fully industrialized nation, its services sector contributes significantly to GDP, overshadowing both agriculture and manufacturing.
Consider the following statements regarding the First Five-Year Plan:
1. It was formulated based on the principles of the Harrod- Domar Model.
2. The plan prioritized the development of heavy and basic industries for rapid industrialization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The First Five-Year Plan, spanning from 1951 to 1956, aimed at achieving a target growth rate of 2.1%, but it surpassed expectations with an actual growth rate of 3.6%. This plan was indeed based on the Harrod-Domar Model, which focuses on the relationship between investment, capital accumulation, and economic growth.
- However, the statement regarding the plan's emphasis on rapid industrialization, particularly heavy and basic industries, is inaccurate. The First Five-Year Plan primarily emphasized agriculture, price stability, power, and transport. It addressed challenges such as an influx of refugees, severe food shortages, and mounting inflation. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.
Fill in the blanks with the appropriate word given in the option- ........................... represents those things which people consider important and necessary to live a life of respect and dignity.
Rights represent those things that I and others consider important and necessary to live a life of dignity and respect.
Who among the following heads the expert committee for studying the advisability of granting new urban Cooperative banking licences (UCBs)?
Y.H. Malegam heads the expert committee for studying the advisability of granting new urban Cooperative banking licences. The term Urban Co-operative Banks (UCBs), though not formally defined, refers to primary cooperative banks located in urban and semi-urban areas. These banks, till 1996, were allowed to lend money only for non- agricultural purposes. This distinction does not hold today. These banks were traditionally centred around communities, localities and workplace groups. They essentially lent to small borrowers and businesses. Today, their scope of operations has widened considerably.
The visit of foreigners in India to see the various places or events in the country amounts to which of the following in terms of economy?
Visiting foreigners in India to see the various places or events in the country amounts to exports. The visitors brought dollars into India and they utilized services in India (consumption)
Before the launch of Kisan Rin Portal (KRP), farmers used to submit manual claims under the Interest Subvention and Prompt Repayment Incentive schemes to which of the following institution/s?
The Kisan Rin Portal, launched in September, 2023, digitized the Interest Subvention Scheme (ISS). Previously, banks had to manually submit claims to RBI (for commercial banks) and NABARD (for cooperative/ rural banks), leading to delays and lack of transparency.
The Kuznets Curve illustrates the relationship between:
lanation:- The Kuznets Curve is a hypothesized relationship between income inequality and economic development. It suggests that in the early stages of economic growth, inequality tends to increase, but after a certain level of income per capita is reached, inequality begins to decrease. This creates an inverted U-shaped curve when plotting inequality against economic development.
The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1948 proposed
Mixed economy- A mixed economic system is a system that combines aspects of both capitalism and socialism. A mixed economic system protects private property and allows a level of economic freedom in the use of capital, but also allows for governments to interfere in economic activities in order to achieve social aims.
During the Gupta Empire, the term ‘UPARIKARA’ was used for–
During the Gupta Empire, the term UPARIKARA was used for an extra or additional tax levied on all subjects, often specifically imposed on temporary tenants. It was distinct from the regular land tax (Udranga or Bhaga) and helped fund the state’s administrative and infrastructure needs. It was often applied to cultivators who lacked permanent proprietary rights to the soil, specifically targeting temporary tenants.
What was the most important impact of the Alexander's Invasion on India?
- Alexander spent about two years in India.
- There have been a number of cultural interactions between Greece and India. In particular during the Maurya era, his invasion quickened the pace of governmental unification in northern India.
- Following his invasion, direct communication was made between India and Greece. Following the invasion, the northwest region of India was ruled by a number of Indo- Greek rulers. This made the influence of Greece on Indian art evident, particularly in the Gandhara School of Art.
Which among the following products is not usually exported from India?
India has to import pulses despite being a leading producer due to the high rate of consumption. Thus, pulses are generally not exported from India whereas wheat, rice and sugar is exported at times.
Assertion (A): The mtDNA haplogroups M31 and M32 observed in the Onge and Great Andamanese populations represent ancient maternal lineages that have undergone in situ evolution on the Andaman Islands, isolated since the initial Out-of-Africa coastal migration approximately 50–70 thousand years ago. Reason (R): Complete mtDNA sequencing revealed that the coding region mutations defining M31 and M32 do not overlap with those of known Indian, East Asian, or Oceanian haplogroups M, N, or R, and surveys of over 6, 500 mainland Indian mtDNA sequences confirmed the absence of these specific mutations, indicating phylogenetic independence driven by genetic drift in small, isolated populations. Options:
Assertion (A): The Onge and Great Andamanese populations are known for their long-term isolation. Genetic studies have identified haplogroups M31 and M32 as unique to these populations. The assertion correctly identifies these as ancient maternal lineages that branched off during the early migration out of Africa. Their distinct genetic profile is the result of thousands of years of in situ (local) evolution, essentially trapping these lineages on the islands for approximately 50, 000 to 70, 000 years. Reason (R): This statement provides the scientific evidence for the Assertion. By conducting complete mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) sequencing, researchers compared the genetic markers of Andamanese populations against vast databases (over 6, 500 samples) of mainland Indian, East Asian, and Oceanian populations. The lack of overlap confirms that M31 and M32 are not recent arrivals or branches shared with neighboring mainland groups. Their unique mutations and the statistical absence in mainland databases confirm that these lineages evolved independently, a process significantly accelerated by genetic drift²the change in gene frequency that occurs in small, isolated groups where no new genetic material is introduced from outside. BCW Bits: Onge, Jarwa, Sentinelese and Great Andamanese are important tribes of Andaman Islands. Sentinelese remain one of the world¶s most isolated tribes. mtDNA studies are widely used in anthropology and evolutionary biology. Y-chromosome analysis traces paternal lineage. Tarkash Annual PYQ Plus BPSC Concept Wallah.
Which of the following is correctly matched- 1. Thyroxine Hormone - Diabetes
2. Insulin Hormone – Goiter
3. Adrenaline hormone – anger, anxiety and excitement Code:
This type of asexual reproduction in which the organism divides to produce two offspring is called binary fission. Goiter- is a disease of the thyroid gland. If the thyroid gland does not produce thyroxine hormone then this disease occurs. When the pancreas does not produce insulin hormone in sufficient quantity then the person suffers from diabetes. Adrenal gland secretes such hormones which balance the amount of salt in the blood. Adrenals also secrete a hormone called adrenaline. Adrenaline works by combining stress in states of anger, anxiety and excitement. 7. (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Class-8, Ch-6, Page-73 In Hydra also, a new organism develops from the embryo emerging from a single parent. This type of reproduction in which only one parent gives birth to a new organism is called asexual reproduction. In Hydra, a new organism develops from the bud, hence this type of reproduction is called budding. Amoeba: In this, the process of reproduction begins with the division of the nucleus into two parts. After this, the cell also gets divided into two parts (cells), each part of which has a nucleus. As a result, two amoebae are formed from one parent. This type of asexual reproduction in which the organism divides to produce two offspring is called binary fission.
Consider the following statements regarding Liver:
1. The liver is an organ of the body, which is found only in invertebrate animals.
2. Its function is to detoxify various metabolites, and make the required bio-chemicals for digestion.
3. The bile juice secreted by the liver is stored in the gallbladder.
Which of the above mentioned statements are correct?
- The liver is a major metabolic organ of the body, which performs essential biological functions. It is found only in vertebrate animals. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect. A vertebrate is an animal that has a backbone and a skeleton.
- The liver is the largest solid organ in the body. It maintains healthy blood sugar levels, and regulates blood clotting.
- The liver breaks down poisonous substances, such as alcohol and drugs and filters the blood. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.
- The liver produces bile, a fluid that breaks down fat and helps in digestion.
- The bile juice secreted by the liver is stored in the gallbladder. Therefore, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements:
1. Snow results in mechanical bending of trees.
2. Excessive temperature disrupts the balance between respiration and photosynthesis.
3. Frost can lead to killing of young plants due to damage to cells and formation of cankers.
Which of the above statements are correct?
- Heavy snow accumulation on branches and limbs can exert significant weight and stress on the plant's structure. This weight can cause bending, breaking, or splitting of branches.
- However, it can also act as a blanket and prevent further drop in temperature, thus protecting seedlings from excessive cold and frost. Therefore Statement 1 is correct.
- Excessive temperature disrupts the balance between respiration and photosynthesis thereby causing depletion of food.
- High temperatures can lead to an increase in the rate of respiration in plants. While respiration is essential for providing energy to cells, excessive heat can cause respiration to outpace photosynthesis.
- Heat stress can lead to stomatal closure in plants, reducing the uptake of carbon dioxide (CO2) needed for photosynthesis. This reduction in CO2 availability inhibits photosynthetic activity. Therefore Statement 2 is correct.
- Frost can lead to killing of young plants due to damage to cells and formation of cankers. Cankers refer to areas of dead tissue or lesions found on the stems, branches, or trunks of trees and woody plants. Therefore Statement 3 is correct.
If a feather, a rubber ball, and a wooden ball are falling freely simultaneously from the same height in a vacuum, then
A free-falling object is an object which is falling under the influence of gravity only. In the case of free fall, the only force that acts on all objects is gravity. So, the three bodies falling freely will experience no air resistance acting and all three objects will accelerate at the same value of “g”. Hence, all three objects will fall together.
Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) recently collaborated with which company to establish Frontier Technology Labs (FTLs) in schools?
The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) and Meta partnered to create Frontier Technology Labs (FTLs) in key schools, advancing beyond Atal Tinkering Labs. These labs, backed by cutting-edge infrastructure, promote innovation among students by providing access to Artificial Intelligence, Augmented & Virtual Reality, Blockchain, Cybersecurity, Robotics, 3D Printing, and Internet of Things technologies. This collaboration seeks to democratize future technology access, fostering a culture of innovation in education.
An oil tanker is partially filled with oil and moves forward on a level road with uniform acceleration. The free surface of oil then -
When an oil tanker accelerates forward on a level road, the oil inside it experiences a shift due to inertia. Because of the uniform acceleration, the oil tends to lag behind the tanker’s motion, creating a higher depth at the rear end and a lower depth at the front end of the tanker. This results in the free surface of the oil becoming inclined horizontally, with a larger depth towards the rear where the oil collects due to the tanker’s acceleration. This phenomenon occurs because the oil, being a liquid, responds to the acceleration of the tanker by moving towards the rear, where it accumulates due to the inertia of its own motion relative to the accelerating tanker.
Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) has partnered with which institution to develop India’s first quantum diamond microchip imager?
Bombay) Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) has partnered with the Indian Institute of Technology-Bombay (IIT-Bombay) to develop India’s first quantum diamond microchip imager. The Quantum Diamond Microchip Imager, an advanced sensing tool for semiconductor chip imaging, will help reduce the chances of chip failures and improve the efficiency of electronic devices.
On a clean glass plate a drop of water spreads to form a thin layer whereas a drop of mercury remains almost spherical because
The relative strength of the cohesive and adhesive forces acting on a liquid when placed on a smooth surface, such as a glass plate, determines the shape that liquid will take. If the adhesive forces between a liquid and a surface are stronger, they will pull the liquid down, causing it to wet the surface. The liquid will, however, maintain its spherical shape and form beads on the surface if the cohesive forces inside the liquid are stronger and can resist such adherence. Mercury drop remains spherical on a plate of glass because its cohesive force is greater than its adhesive force with glass. Note: A drop of water spreads on the glass as the adhesive force acting on the water(between water and glass) is stronger than the cohesive force among the water molecules.
Which of the following is not based on the heating effect of current?
When current flows through a conductor, heat energy is generated in the conductor, known as the heating effect of current. Except tube light all others contain a coil of wire. This coil of wire is called an element. When these are connected to the electric supply, they become hot and give out heat. The amount of heat produced in a wire depends on its material, length and thickness. BCW Bits : Working of Tube light : The tube light also called the fluorescent lamp converts electrical energy into useful light energy. The tube light is a low-pressure mercury vapour gas discharge lamp that works on the principle of fluorescence to produce visible light. Edmund Germer who was a German inventor is recognized as the father of the fluorescent lamp. When the power button is switched on, the electric current passes through the tube. This current then passes through the gas and energizes the mercury vapour; this vapour delivers ultraviolet radiation through a discharge process. The radiation of ultraviolet rays causes the phosphor coating present on the inner wall of the lamp to radiate visible light.
How do vector vaccines work to provide immunity?
Viral vector-based vaccines differ from most conventional vaccines in the sense that they don’t actually contain antigens, but rather use the body’s own cells to produce them. They do this by using a modified virus (the vector) to deliver genetic code for antigen, in the case of COVID-19 spike proteins found on the surface of the virus, into human cells.
Which Material is used for smart film?
Indium Tin Oxide (ITO) is a transparent conducting oxide essential for the functionality of smart films (also known as switchable privacy films or PDLC films). In smart films, ITO layers act as transparent electrodes that conduct an electric current to a layer of polymer-dispersed liquid crystals (PDLC). When voltage is applied, it causes the liquid crystals to align, switching the film from an opaque state to a transparent one. Besides smart films, it is the standard material for touch- screens, OLEDs, LCDs, and solar panels.
The antibiotic among the following is
From the above options, both Penicillin and Sulfadiazine are antibiotics that’s why option E is correct. An antibiotic is a type of antimicrobial substance active against bacteria & either kills or inhibits the growth of bacteria. “Selman Waksman” was the microbiologist who discovered streptomycin, and coined the term antibiotics in 1942 therefore he is known as the “Father of Antibiotics”. Antibiotics damage the cell wall of bacteria and thus make them redundant. BCW Bits: Penicillin: It is obtained from Penicillium moulds, principally Penicillium (P) chrysogenum and P.rubens. Penicillin was discovered in 1928 by Scottish scientist Alexander Fleming as a crude extract of P. Rubens. Penicillins were among the first medications to be effective against many bacterial infections. Aspirin: It is also known as acetylsalicylic acid (ASA), it is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used to reduce pain, fever, and/or inflammation, and as an anticoagulant. Paracetamol: It is also known as acetaminophen. It is a medication used to treat fever and mild to moderate pain. Sulfadiazine: It is also an Antibiotic used to treat moderate infections caused by sensitive organisms. A Few common antibiotics are: - amoxicillin. Doxycycline. Cephalexin. Ciprofloxacin. Clindamycin. Metronidazole. azithromycin.
What is the correct definition of a disproportionation reaction?
A disproportionation reaction is a chemical process, typically a redox reaction, where a single molecule is transformed into two or more distinct products. During this reaction, the matters undergoes both oxidation and reduction simultaneously, resulting in at least two different products.
Synuclein alpha (SNCA) ,recently in the news, is related to which of the following?
Synuclein alpha (SNCA) is an enigmatic protein found in healthy cells, though its exact function remains unclear. It is infamous for its role in age-related neurodegenerative diseases. Twenty-seven years ago, researchers linked SNCA to Parkinson’s disease, where neurons that use dopamine as a neurotransmitter are lost in a specific part of the brain. These dopaminergic neurons often contain aggregated protein masses known as Lewy bodies, with the majority of these proteins being SNCA.
Under the One District One Product (ODOP) initiative, which of the following districts of Bihar is incorrectly matched with its designated product?
The One District One Product (ODOP) initiative is a central-sector vision aligned with the Atmanirbhar Bharat mission. It focuses on selecting, branding, and promoting one unique product from each district to transform them into export hubs. Core Institutional Framework: Launch Year: The nationwide ODOP initiative was formally integrated into the PM Formalisation of Micro Food Processing Enterprises (PMFME) scheme in.
Consider the following statements regarding the GYANDEEP Portal:
1. This portal is launched by the Department of Labour Resources of Bihar.
2. This portal is introduced in compliance with Section 12(1)(c) of the Right to Education Act.
3. This portal will assist unskilled labourers to become skilled.
Which of the above statements are correct?
The Education Department of Bihar has launched the GYANDEEP Portal to facilitate the enrollment of students from marginalised communities in non-profit private schools. This portal is introduced in compliance with Section 12(1)(c) of the Right to Education Act. Under this act, 25 % of total students in every private school must be enrolled from marginalised communities. Through this portal, students enrolled in private schools registered under the RTE Act are monitored. A school that does not fulfil the criteria of 25% enrollment of students from marginalised classes is not eligible for reimbursement of government funds.
Consider the following statements regarding the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) (PESA) Act, 1996:
1. The Ministry of Panchayati Raj is the nodal Ministry for the implementation of provisions of PESA in states. Contact Us : Boring Road Chauraha ,Near V Mart Cheap And Best 3rd Floor. Patna-800001, Bihar. Mob: - 7250110904/05 2. The Constitution of India provides for the extension of provisions of part XI relating to panchayats to scheduled areas of 10 states.
3. The Gram Sabha in a scheduled area has the power to enforce prohibition or to regulate or restrict the sale and consumption of any intoxicant.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The main aims of the Indian National Congress, in the initial stage, were to :.
- Find a democratic, nationalist movement.
- Politicise and politically educate the people.
- Establish the headquarters for a movement.
- Promote friendly relations among the nationalist political workers from different parts of the country.
- Develop and propagate an anticolonial nationalist ideology.
- Formulate and present popular demands before the government, with a view to unifying the people over a common economic and political programme.
- Develop and consolidate a feeling of national unity among the people, irrespective of religion, caste or province; and.
- Carefully promote and nurture Indian nationhood.
Consider the following table Mining Sites in Bihar District P. Genjana Ni-Cr and
1. Rohtas PGE Block Q. Chutia-Nauhatta
2. Aurangabad-Gaya Glauconite Block R. Pipradih-Bhurwa
3. Rohtas Glauconite Block Choose the correct option using the codes given below
Mining Sites in Bihar District P. Genjana Ni-Cr and PGE Block Aurangabad-Gaya Rohtas Q. Chutia-Nauthatta Glauconite Block Rohtas R. Pipradih-Bhurwa Glauconite Block.
Among the following pairs of tribes and districts which one is not correctly matched?
Santhals: Banka, Bhagalpur, Purnea, Katihar Munda: Rohtas, Buxar Oraon: Rohtas, Supaul Kharwar: Rohtas, Bhagalpur BCW Bits: Santhals are the largest tribal group in Bihar. Oraons are the most educated of all Tribes. In Bihar, the tribes having the highest population is Santhal followed by Oraon and Kherwar. In India, the tribes having the highest population in the country is Bhil followed by Gond and Santhal.
Which of the following is the last railway station of Bihar on the train route from Bhagalpur towards Mirza Cheuki?
Ammapali railway station is a halt railway station on the Sahibganj loop line. It is the last station in Bihar.
Gorakhpur-Siliguri Greenfield Expressway will be Bihar’s first expressway with six and eight lanes. It will not pass through which district of Bihar?
Bihar has planned for the development of five upcoming expressways. Out of these, the construction process of the Gorakhpur-Siliguri Greenfield Expressway, aimed at enhancing road connectivity for three states - Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and West Bengal. This will be Bihar’s first expressway with six and eight lanes. Stretching approximately 416 kilometers, this road will traverse through eight districts of Bihar. These districts include West Champaran, East Champaran, Sheohar, Sitamarhi, Madhubani, Supaul, Araria, and Kishanganj.
The late actor Kumudlal Ganguly, also known by his stage name Ashok Kumar, was born in which of the following cities of Bihar?
Kumudlal Ganguly also known by his stage name Ashok Kumar was born in Bhagalpur. BCW Bits : Ashok Kumar was also known as Dadamoni. He was honoured with Dadasaheb Phalke Award in 1988 and with Padma Bhushan in 1999. Bihar Special.
At what percentage has Bihar registered the lowest Female Workforce Participation Rate for the year 2020-2022?
Bihar registered the lowest Female Workforce Participation Rate, 4% in rural and 6.5% in urban areas for the year 2020-2022.
Which of the following States of India borders with the maximum number of districts in Bihar?
Both Uttar Pradesh and Jharkhand state have a common border with 8 districts of Bihar. The eastern tip of Katihar district touches Jharkhand and the Western tip of Rohtas district touches Uttar Pradesh. Border with UP Border with Jharkhand W. Champaran Katihar Gopalganj Bhagalpur Bihar Special.
Who had formed the Bihar Socialist Party in 1931 A.D?
Bihar Socialist Party was formed in July 1931 by Ganga Sharan Sinha, Rambriksh Benipuri, Phulan Prasad Verma, and Ramanand Mishra in an informal meeting held at the residence of Phoolan Prasad Verma at Patna. BCW Bits: The immediate aim of the Bihar Socialist Party was to spread socialist ideas, organising labourers and peasants. All India Congress Socialist Party (CSP) was formed on 17th May 1934 with Acharya Narendra Dev as President and Jayprakash Narayan as its General Secretary. Other important members of CSP were Yusuf Meherally, Basawon Sinha, etc. Membership was open to those who were a member of Congress and not a member of any communal organisation.
Who led the ‘Ambari Satyagraha’ in 1939 in Bihar?
Ambari Satyagraha was led by Rahul Sankrityayan in Bihar during 1939. BCW Bits: Rahul Sankrityayan: Born in Pandha in the Azamgarh district of Uttar Pradesh. His childhood name was Kedarnath. Because of his inclination towards Buddhism, he changed his name to Rahul and became Rahul Sankrityayan. He is called as “the Father of Indian Travelogue”. “Volga Se Ganga” was written by him. ‘Tibbet Me Sava Varsh’ and ‘Meri Europe Yatra’ are some of his other important literary works.
Which of the following towns is located in the westernmost part of Bihar?
Bihar lies in the eastern part of India, but within the state itself: West - Kaimur / Buxar region (border with Uttar Pradesh), Center -Patna, East - Bhagalpur, Katihar (towards West Bengal). Kaimur District lies in the south-western part of Bihar, along the Kaimur (Rohtas) plateau (an extension of Vindhyan Range) . It sits near the tri-junction of Bihar– Uttar Pradesh±Jharkhand, District HQ: Bhabua Bihar shares borders with: Uttar Pradesh (West), Jharkhand (South), West Bengal (East), Nepal (North). BCW Bits: Famous places of Kaimur: Mundeshwari Temple, one of the oldest Hindu temples in India, and is dedicated to Lord Shiva and Goddess Shakti; Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary: Known for waterfalls, forests, and wildlife; Telhar Kund: Scenic waterfall in the hills The region is known for waterfalls and forest areas Bihar is divided by the Ganga River into North and South Bihar Most of Bihar lies in the fertile Indo-Gangetic plain.
The Bakasht Movement in Bihar during 1937– 1938 was organized by whom?
Swami Sahajanand Saraswati was an ascetic, a nationalist and a peasant leader of India. He was an intellectual, prolific writer, social reformer and revolutionary. Although born in Ghazipur district of United Provinces (present-day Uttar Pradesh), his social and political activities focused mostly on Bihar in the initial days, and gradually spread to the rest of India with the formation of the All India Kisan Sabha in 1936. He had set up an ashram at Bihta, in Bihar carried out most of his work in the later part of his life from there. The Kisan Sabha movement started in Bihar under the leadership of Saraswati who founded the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha (BPKS) in 1929, in order to mobilize peasant grievances against the zamindari attacks on their occupancy rights, and thus sparking the farmers’ movements in India. Saraswati organized the Bakasht Movement in Bihar during 1937–1938. “Bakasht” means self-cultivated. The movement was against the eviction of tenants from Bakasht lands by zamindars and led to the passing of the Bihar Tenancy Act and the Bakasht Land Tax. He also led the successful struggle in the Dalmia Sugar Mill at Bihta, where peasant- worker unity was the most important characteristic. On hearing of Saraswati’s arrest during the Quit India Movement, Subhash Chandra Bose and All India Forward Bloc decided to observe 28 April as All-India Swami Sahajanand Day in protest of his incarceration by the British Raj.
The first Chief Minister of Bihar after independence was:
Shri Krishna Sinha, also known as ³Sri Babu, ´ became the first Chief Minister of Bihar after independence. Shri Krishna Sinha was one of the most prominent political leaders of Bihar and played an active role in the Indian freedom struggle. He worked closely with national leaders like Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. Rajendra Prasad. After independence, he became the first Chief Minister of Bihar and remained an inÀuential figure in the state¶s politics for many years. His tenure is especially remembered for land reform efforts and the abolition of the zamindari system in Bihar. These reforms were important because Bihar had a large agrarian population suffering under exploitative landlord practices since colonial times. Jayaprakash Narayan popularly known as JP, was a major socialist leader and later led the famous “Total Revolution” movement against corruption and authoritarian rule during the 1970s. He played a key role in mobilizing opposition against the Emergency imposed in 1975. Anugrah Narayan Sinha was one of the most respected leaders of Bihar and served as the first Deputy Chief Minister and Finance Minister of Bihar. He worked closely with Shri Krishna Sinha and contributed significantly to Bihar’s administration and development. Rajendra Prasad immense contribution to both Bihar and national politics. He was closely associated with the Champaran Satyagraha, became President of the Constituent Assembly, and later became the first President of independent India. BCW Bits: Bihar became a separate province in 1912. Patna is the capital of Bihar. The Bihar Legislative Assembly is unicameral along with a Legislative Council. Dr. Anugrah Narayan Sinha is known as “Bihar Vibhuti.” Dr. Rajendra Prasad was born in Zeradei, Bihar. Jayaprakash Narayan was associated with the Congress Socialist Party. The Constituent Assembly drafted the Constitution of India. Zamindari abolition was an important post-independence reform. Bihar played a major role in India’s freedom movement.
Bhojshala Complex, sometimes seen in the news, is located in?
Bhojshala complex, is a historical site contested by both Hindus and Muslims in Madhya Pradesh’s Dhar district. The Bhojshala complex, an 11th- century structure protected by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), holds significance for both communities. Hindus revere it as a temple dedicated to Vagdevi (Goddess Saraswati), while Muslims refer to it as Kamal Maula Mosque. As per an arrangement established by the ASI on April 2003, Hindus conduct pujas on Tuesdays, while Muslims offer namaz on Fridays within the premises.
Who became Chief Minister of Bihar in March 1939?
Shri Krishna Sinha was premier Since 1937. The dictionary meaning of ‘Premier’ is ‘chief’ also. There was no post of chief Minister created in 1939. BCW Bits: Bihar Kesari — Shri Krishna Singh was the leader of the first congress ministry in the 1937 election of Bihar, that took place under the Government of India Act 1935. Indian national congress was an all-India party so easily won the election. Kisan sabha also contested the election on the issue of “Bakasht Land” but couldn’t win a single seat. On 15 February 1938 - the Congress Ministry at Bihar resigned under the leadership of Shri. Krishna Singh on the issue of release of political prisoners, i.e. Yogendra Shukla was given punishment and sent to Cellular jail at Andaman and Nicobar Island (Kalapani). Bihar Ministry again tendered its resignation on 31 October 1939, in protest of the Linlithgow declaration of engulfment of India in World War-II, without taking consideration of Indian view points. Note: If in question, it is asked about 1st Congress ministry to be formed in Bihar, then the answer will be Shri Krishna Singh. If it is 1st Indian Ministry formation in Bihar, then it will be Md. Yunus.
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GS Mock Test IV | 100 MCQs with Explanations
Prepared by Brajesh Mohan (GS Sandhan)
Focused Preparation for BPSC & Bihar Competitive Examinations
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