GS Mock Test VIII for BPSC & Bihar Exams: 100 MCQs with Answers & Explanations
Practice 100 General Studies MCQs with click-to-reveal answers and detailed explanations for BPSC CCE, BPSC TRE, Bihar SSC and Bihar Daroga exams. Covers History, Indian Polity, Geography, Economics, General Science and Bihar Special GK.
Subjects covered
- Indian History
- Indian Polity & Constitution
- Geography
- Indian Economy
- General Science
- Bihar History & Geography
- Bihar Economy, Polity & Culture
- Bihar Special GK
- Important General Studies Facts
Ideal for: BPSC CCE, BPSC TRE, Bihar SSC, Bihar Police / Bihar Daroga and other Bihar competitive examinations.
About this mock test
Test and improve your General Studies preparation with this comprehensive 100-question GS Mock Test designed for BPSC CCE, BPSC TRE, Bihar SSC, Bihar Daroga and other Bihar government examinations. The test covers the most important areas of General Studies, including Ancient, Medieval and Modern Indian History, Indian Polity, Geography, Indian Economy, General Science and Bihar Special GK.
Each question is followed by a click-to-reveal answer and explanation, allowing you to attempt the question independently before checking the correct answer. The explanations are designed to help you understand the underlying concept rather than simply memorising the answer.
Use this mock test to assess your preparation, identify weak areas, revise important facts and improve accuracy and speed before the examination. The questions are structured around the type of factual, conceptual and analytical questions commonly encountered in competitive examinations.
Consider the following statements regarding Religious doctrine:
1. Anitya is a Buddhist doctrine given by Gautam Buddha himself
2. The Doctrine of Void was given by the famous Buddhist philosopher Nagarjuna.
3. The doctrine of Brahmacharya was given by Rishavdev
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: Anitya is a Buddhist doctrine given by Gautam Buddha himself, it is also called Impermanence which means “all of conditioned existence, without exception, is transient, evanescent, inconstant”. Statement 2 is correct: The concept of Sunyata or Doctrine of Void was given by the famous Buddhist philosopher Nagarjuna. Statement 3 is Incorrect: Jainism preaches five Mahavratas, or great vows, which are central to its ethical and spiritual practice. These vows include Ahimsa (Non-violence), Satya (Truth), Asteya or Acharya (Non-stealing), Aparigraha (Non-attachment/ Non-possession), and Brahmacharya (Celibacy/ Chastity). Among these, Brahmacharya was formally added by Mahavira, the 24th Tirthankara of Jainism. This addition underscores the importance of self- control and purity in Jain’s spiritual practice.
Consider the following statements:
1. The stone, bronze and terracotta statues found in Harappan sites are abundant and refined .
2. The art of bronze-casting was practiced on a wide scale by the Harappans.
3. Plain pottery is more common than painted ware.
Which of the above statements is/are correct regarding the Indus Velly Civilisation?
- Statement 1 is incorrect. The people of IVC had fine artistic sensibilities and a vivid imagination. Statues, whether in stone, bronze or terracotta, found in Harappan sites is not abundant but refined.
- Statement 2 is correct. The copper dog and bird of Lothal and the bronze figure of a bull from Kalibangan are in no way inferior to the human figures of copper and bronze from Harappa and Mohenjodaro.
- Statement 3 is correct. Plain pottery is generally of red clay, with or without a fine red or grey slip. It includes knobbed ware ornamented with rows of knobs. The black-painted ware has a fine coating of red slip on which geometric and animal designs are executed in glossy black paint.
Which of the following statements about the play Karpuramanjari is correct?
Karpuramanjari is a classical Indian drama associated with Rajasekhara, a court poet of the Gurjara-Pratihara period (9th–10th century CE). It is written entirely in Prakrit, specifically Sauraseni Prakrit, not Sanskrit. It was composed to please his wife Avantisundari, who encouraged his literary work. Rajasekhara, A court poet of the Gurjara-Pratihara rulers, lived around the 9th–10th century CE. Known for literary works like Karpuramanjari and Kavyamimamsa, he wrote in both Sanskrit and Prakrit. Sauraseni Prakrit, A popular spoken language form in ancient India. Used in dramas to rePresent common people’s speech. Karpuramanjari is special because it is written fully in this language. Nagabhata II, A ruler of the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty, reigned in the 8th–9th century CE. Kalidasa, one of the greatest Sanskrit poets. Famous works: Abhijnanasakuntalam, Meghaduta, Raghuvamsha; lived in the Gupta period. BCW Bits: Rajasekhara described himself as a “poet of poets” in Kavyamimamsa. His works give insight into court culture and literary theory. Prakrit languages were often used in dramas for female and common characters. Gurjara-Pratiharas were key rulers in North India resisting Arab invasions. Kalidasa is often linked with Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya) Bhoja (Paramara ruler) was known as a scholar-king and patron of arts. Sanskrit dramas usually mix Sanskrit + Prakrit, but this play is unique. Rajasekhara¶s time reÀects a transition phase in classical literature.
Which of the following sites has yielded a short inscription written in Harappan script with huge alphabets?
The Harappan site of Dholavira, located in the Rann of Kutch (Gujarat), yielded a unique finding, known as the Dholavira Signboard. This is a short inscription comprising ten large-sized signs (alphabets) of the Harappan script. Each sign or letter is approximately 37cm (15 inches) high, which is exceptionally large compared to the tiny script typically found on seals. The characters were made out of pieces of milk-white gypsum and were originally inlaid on a large wooden board that was about 3 meters (9.8 feet) long.
Which of the statements is correct about ‘Mahayana Buddhism’?
1. Lord Buddha is considered as an ordinary human being.
2. Believe in idol worship of Lord Buddha
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct. Mahayana Hinayana 1. Lord Buddha is considered as an ordinary human being. 1. Lord Buddha is considered as a Divine being 2. Believe in idol worship of Lord Buddha 2. Did not believe in idol worship 3. They also believe in Ahimsa and casteless society 3. Believe in Ahimsa(non- violence), casteless society 4. Mahayana scriptures were written in the Sanskrit language. 4.Their scriptures were written in the Pali language. 5. This sect of Buddhism is mainly followed in China, South Korea, Japan, and Tibet. 5. This sect of Buddhism is mainly followed in Sri Lanka, Thailand, Laos, Cambodia, and Myanmar.
The role of Anand, the chief disciple of Mahatma Buddha, in the first Buddhist Council was –
In the first Buddhist Council, Buddha's teachings were compiled and divided into two Pitakas named Sut Pitaka (by Anand) and Vinay Pitaka (by Upali) and Anand and Upali were considered as the proofs of Dharma (Suta) and Vinaya respectively.
Which medieval Indian empire was famous for elaborating on 'local self-government'?
The Chola empire was divided into Mandalams (Province) and these in turn were divided into Valanadu (Commissionary), Nadu (District) and Kurram (a group of villages). The arrangement of local self-government was the basic feature of the Chola administration. Cholas came to Power after defeating Pallavas. Chola Empire was founded by Vijayalaya. Rajendra Chola was the first to conquer the banks of the Ganga, popularly known as Victor of the Ganges. His rule is famously depicted as the Golden Age of the Cholas. The famous sculpture of Nataraja was the zenith of Cholas. Bronze images formed during Cholas are considered amongst the finest in the world.
Who was the founder of the Ajivika sect?
lanation- The Ajivika sect was founded by Makkhali Gosala, also known as Gosala Maskariputra. This ascetic religious group emerged around the same period as Buddhism and Jainism, advocating a strict way of life.
The Milindapanho takes the form of a dialogue between King Menander and which Buddhist monk?
The Milinda-panha is a dynamic dialogue on Buddhist doctrine featuring questions and challenges posed by King Milinda—also known as Menander, the Greek ruler of a significant Indo-Greek empire in the late 2nd century BCE—and answered by Nagasena, a senior Buddhist monk.
Consider the following statements:
1. Ranjit Singh was the son of Mahan Singh.
2. The kingdom of Farukhabad was set up by Ali Muhammad Khan.
3. Aurangzeb arrested and executed the Sikh guru Guru Gobind Singh.
4. Suraj Mal was an eminent leader among the Jats.
Which of the above mentioned statements are incorrect?
- Ranjit Singh was the son of Mahan Singh, the leader of the Sukarchakiya misl.
- Upon the death of his father, Charat Singh,Mahan Singh succeeded to the leadership of the Sukerchakia Misl.
- His son Ranjit Singh succeeded him and established the Sikh Empire and got the title of Sher-e - Punjab.
- The kingdom of Farukhabad was set up by Mohammad Khan Bangash by taking advantage of the anarchical situation after Aurangzeb's death.
- The kingdom of Rohilakhand was set up by Ali Muhammad Khan following the situation of turmoil created by invasion by Nadir Shah.
- Aurangzeb arrested and executed the Sikh guru named Guru Tegh Bahadur.
- Suraj Mal was an eminent leader among the Jats.
- He was described as "the Plato of the Jat people" and by a modern writer as the "Jat Odysseus", because of his sharp political sense.
Consider the following statements for Krishna Devaraya:
1. He was the greatest ruler of Saluva Dynasty
2. He was bestowed upon the title of Andhra Bhoja
3. He wrote 'Jambavati Kalyana'
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- Krishnadevaraya was the third emperor of the Tuluva dynasty.
- He was given the title of Andhra Bhoja, Moory Rayara Ganda, and Kannada Rajya Rama Ramana.
- He defeated the Sultans of Bijapur, Golconda, the Bahmani Sultanate, and the Gajapatis of Odisha to become one of the most powerful ruler of the Indian sub-continent.
- He wrote Amukta Malyada (in Telgu) that describes the marriage of Vishnu and Andal.
- Just like the navratna of Mughal court, he had'Ashtadiggajas' in his court. The eight luminaries in the court of Krishnade- varaya were: — Allasani Peddana — Madayagiri Mallana — Dhurjati — Nandi Timmara — Ramaraja Bhushana — Pingali Surana — Tenali Ramakrishna — Ayyalaraju Rambhara.
Which of the following statements about Alauddin Khalji's reforms is correct?
- Alauddin Khalji introduced several significant reforms during his reign. One of his notable reforms was the introduction of paying his soldiers in cash rather than giving them a share of the booty, which is why statement A is incorrect.
- Regarding the enforcement of prohibition, Alauddin prohibited liquor and banned the use of intoxicating drugs, but this prohibition was not enforced throughout the entire country; it was mainly limited to Delhi and nearby areas. Due to widespread violations of these prohibition rules, the Sultan had to eventually relax the restrictions, making statement B incorrect.
- Marriage alliances between families of noblemen were permitted only with the consent of the Sultan, indicating that such alliances required his approval, hence statement C is incorrect.
- Finally, Alauddin brought villages held by proprietary right, as free gifts, or as religious endowments back under royal authority and control, and he curtailed the powers of traditional village officers by depriving them of their traditional privileges. This makes statement D correct.
He is the founder of Gaudiya Vaishnavism, a religious movement that promotes Vaishnavism (the worship of Lord Vishnu as the Supreme Soul). Gaudiya Vaishnavism teaches the acceptance of Bhakti yoga to realize the ultimate truth. He is credited with popularizing the 'Maha Mantra' or 'Hare Krishna Mantra The above phrase describes ?
- Chaitanyadeva: Chaitanyadeva, a sixteenth-century bhakti saint from Bengal, preached selfless devotion to Krishna- Radha. He is the founder of Gaudiya Vaishnavism, a religious movement that promotes Vaishnavism (the worship of Lord Vishnu as the Supreme Soul)
- Tulsidas: Tulsidas was a Hindu saint and poet renowned for his devotion to the deity Rama.
- He wrote several popular works in Sanskrit and Awadhi but is best known as the author of the Hanuman Chalisa and the epic Ramcharitmanas retells the Sanskrit Ramayana based on Rama's life in the vernacular Awadhi.
Tabaqat-i-Akbari, which has been sometimes considered more reliable than Abul Fazl's Akbarnama was written by Medieval History 471
The Tabaqat-I-Akbari is a three-volume chronicle compiled by Khwajah Nizamuddin Ahmed (who was appointed as a Bakshi by Emperor Akbar). The account covers the earliest Muslim invasions (from 986 A.D.) and concludes in the thirty-eighth year of Akbar's reign (1593-94 A.D). The work has been translated into English by Dr Brajendranath De (1852-1932). Many historians like Elliot, Erskine, Lees, Wolseley Haig and Beni Prasad regarded Tabaqat-i-Akbari as amongst the best Persian histories and the most reliable sources of information about Medieval India as it is most descriptive & is based on first-hand experience of the Author. The Akbarnama, also known as the Book of Akbar, is the official chronicle of the reign of Akbar, the third Mughal Emperor (r. 1556–1605). It was written by Abu’l-Fazl ibn Mubarak, Akbar's court historian and biographer. The AkbarNama is divided into three books which deal with the ancestors of Akbar and his reign. In the early twentieth century, the Akbar Nama was translated into English by Henry Beveridge.
Who did Sher Shah marry to obtain the strategic fort of Chunar?
lanation:- Sher Shah Suri obtained the strategic fort of Chunar by marrying Lad Malika. She was the widow of Taj Khan Sarangkhani, the previous ruler of Chunar. By marrying her, Sher Shah gained control over the fort, which was a critical stronghold in his military campaigns. This marriage was a strategic move that helped Sher Shah in his efforts to consolidate power in the region.
Which city of India was called 'Shiraz-i- Mashriq' (Shiraz of the East) in the medieval age?
Shiraz was renowned in the world as the cultural capital of Persia and was one of the most important and famous medieval cities. The city of Jaunpur was called the Shiraz-i-Mashriq or Shiraz of the East. It was built in 1359 by Sultan Firoz Shah Tughlaq. The city was built on the river Gomti and was named Jaunpur after Sultan's cousin and predecessor, Jauna Khan. Jaunpur acted as a strategic point on the road to Bengal and the Delhi Sultans had long been fighting with the rulers of Lakhnauti. After Timur’s invasion, Malik Sarwar, a Khawaja Sara (eunuch) who had been appointed the governor of Jaunpur in 1394, with the title of Malik-us-Sharq (ruler of the east), declared independence. Thus, laid the foundation of the Sharqi kingdom.
The Qutub Minar was completed by?
The founder of the Slave dynasty, Qutub-ud-din Aibak started the construction of the Qutub Minar in memory of the famous Sufi saint Khawaja Qutubuddin Bhaktiyar Kaki. But he could complete only the first storey of the building. The Qutub Minar was later completed by Iltutmish. The Hauz Shamsi, south of the Qutub Minar, and the madrasah around it, was built by Iltutmish.
With reference to the French East India Company’s activities in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Compagnie des Indes Orientales was founded by Louis XIV in 1664 and was granted a 50-year monopoly on French trade in the Indian and Pacific Oceans.
2. The company established Pondicherry in 1674 as the central hub of French power in India.
3. The Treaty of Ryswick in 1697 allowed the French to retain their territories in India without any interference from the Dutch. 145 Modern History
4. The French East India Company successfully established permanent colonies in Madagascar during its early years. How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
The Compagnie des Indes Orientales(French East India Company) was established on September 1, 1664, by King Louis XIV under the active planning of his finance minister, Jean-Baptiste Colbert. The Crown granted it a 50-year trade monopoly in both the Indian and Pacific Oceans to actively compete against the commercial hegemony of the British and the Dutch. In 1674, François Martin acquired a site from the Governor of Valikondapuram (under the Sultan of Bijapur). This critical settlement grew into Pondicherry (modern Puducherry), becoming the ultimate administrative capital and central hub of French inÀuence across India. During the Nine Years' War, the Dutch captured Pondicherry from the French in 1693. The conclusion of the conÀict via the Treaty of Ryswick in September 1697 forced the Dutch to entirely restore the captured territory back to French control, letting them operate their commercial centers free of Dutch occupation. The French repeatedly tried to build a permanent colony at Fort Dauphin in Madagascar to serve as a strategic base for Indian ocean maritime trade. However, due to severe outbreaks of tropical disease, intense local tribal hostility, and administrative mismanagement, the settlement was a major failure and had to be completely abandoned by.
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Zamindari Association, also known as Landholder’s Society, was established in 1838 to protect the interests of Zamindars in colonial India.
Statement II: The Zamindari Association raised its voice for the problems faced by common people and advocated for reforms benefiting the rural population. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
The Zamindari Association—also called the Landholders’ Society—was formed in 1838 in Bengal.To protect the interests of zamindars (landlords) under British rule, especially regarding Land revenue policies, Legal rights over estates, and relations with the colonial government. Prominent Bengali elites such as Dwarkanath Tagore were associated with it. These were wealthy landholders, not peasant representatives. So the core purpose was clearly zamindar-focused, not mass welfare. BCW Bits: It was one of the earliest political associations in India before the INC (1885). It used petitions and legal methods, not mass movements. Later, it inspired the formation of the British Indian Association (1851). These early groups were called “elite politics”, not nationalist mass politics. Mass-based political mobilisation developed laterwith leaders like Dadabhai Naoroji and Congress. Zamindars benefited from the Permanent Settlement (1793), so they wanted to protect that system. These associations show the early stage of political consciousness in India.
Consider the following: Assertion (a): Swaraj Party was founded by Motilal Nehru and C. R. Das. Reason (R): The aim of the Swaraj Party was to demand Poorna Swaraj.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- Swaraj Party was started in 1923 by Motilal Nehru, C.R. Das and N.C. Kelkar after the Gaya Session of INC.
- Along with the masses, a particular section of national leaders was frustrated by Gandhi's decision to call off the Non-Cooperation Movement.
- C.R.Das and Nehru thought of contesting elections to enter the legislative council with a view to obstructing a foreign government.
- Many candidates of the Swaraj Party were elected to the central legislative assembly and provincial legislative council in the 1923 elections.
An interim government under the leadership of Raja Mahendra Pratap Singh was founded in Kabul with the support of Germany during the
Mahendra Pratap Singh was an Indian freedom fighter, journalist, writer, revolutionary, President of the Provisional Government of India, which served as the Indian Government in exile in Kabul during World War I, and social reformist in the Republic of India. Raja Mahendra Pratap was also deeply involved with the Swadeshi movement and would constantly promote small industries with indigenous goods and local artisans. Deeply influenced by the speeches of Dadabhai Naoroji, and Bal Gangadhar Tilak among others, Mahendra Pratap started the movement to burn the foreign-made clothes in his state. Mahendra pratap singh was the Modern History.
Abhinav Bharat, a secret society of revolutionaries, was organized in 1904 by which of the following leaders?
Initially it was started as Mitra Mela in Maharashtra and in 1904 it was renamed "Abhinav Bharat". For more explanation Refer to Q. No. 251.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Simon Commission ?
In 1928, the Simon Commission, led by Sir John Simon and consisting of seven Members of Parliament, arrived in India to assess and propose potential changes to the laws and government structure of the country, which was then Britain’s largest and most important colony. M.A. Ansari decided to boycott the commission, and the Indian National Congress session, held in Madras in December 1927, supported this decision.
The Charter Act of 1833 is mainly associated with which important change in the administration of British India?
The Charter Act of 1833, also known as the St. Helena Act due to the Crown taking control of the island from the East India Company. It was necessitated by the Company's vast territorial expansion between 1813 and.
Who raised the demand for ‘Complete Independence’ for the first time in 1921? [59th BPSC)
Ahmedabad Session 1921- C.R. Das was elected as President for the Ahmedabad session (1921) but he was arrested and jailed. Hakim Ajmal Khan was made acting President of the Ahmedabad session. In this session Maulana Hashrat Mohani became the first congress activist to raise the demand for complete Independence. In the Lahore session under the presidency of J L Nehru, The Purna Swaraj Declaration was adopted by the Indian National Congress on 19th December 1929. Note: Slogan ‘Inquilab Zindabad’ was given by Hasrat Mohani that was popularized by Bhagat Singh.
The partition of India was for the first time accepted by the
Lord Mountbatten came to India in March 1947 with the purpose to give complete independence to India. He formulated a plan for the partition of India after several consultations with Indian Leadership. As per the Mountbatten Plan (June 3, 1947), British Parliament passed the Indian Independence Act on July 18, 1947. In this Act, India and Pakistan were decided as two dominion states with effect from 15 August.
Who among the following became the first Woman Finance Minister of India?
The First Woman Finance Minister of India was Indira Gandhi. She took over the Finance portfolio in July 1969, after the resignation of Morarji Desai against the nationalization of major banks. However, the first full-time female Finance Minister is Nirmala Sitharaman.
Who was the first woman President of the Indian National Congress?
Annie Besant was the first woman President of the Indian National Congress in 1917 at the Calcutta session. BCW Bits: Annie Besant served as the President of the Theosophical Society of India which was founded by Madame H. P. Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott (headquarters- Adyar Chennai). Besant set up the Central Hindu College (CHS) at Banaras. She came to India in 1893 to work for social reform in various fields. Modern History.
Which of the following British policies was a most significant cause of the Koya Revolts ?
The Koya Revolts of 1879-80, led by Tomma Dora, took place in the eastern Godavari tract of Andhra Pradesh and parts of Malkangiri in Odisha. Tomma Dora captured a police station and defeated a British contingent, earning the title of ‘King’ of Malkangiri. The revolt was driven by the erosion of traditional forest rights, increased timber and grazing taxes, police exploitation, and new excise regulations on toddy production.
Consider the following statements regarding Individual Privileges for the members of the state legislature.
1. They are exempted from jury service when the state legislature is in session.
2. They cannot be arrested in civil cases during the session of the state legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Members of the state legislature are exempted from jury service. They can refuse to give evidence and appear as a witness in a case pending in a court when the state legislature is in session. Members of the state legislature cannot be arrested during the session of the state legislature and 40 days before the beginning and 40 days after the end of such session. This privilege is available only in civil cases and not in criminal cases or preventive detention cases.
Which of the following steps were taken by the Company to promote Christianity in the name of reformation in India?
1. After 1830, the Company gave permission to Christian missionaries to acquire land and property.
2. In 1850, a new law was made in which there was a provision that if an Indian person adopts Christianity, he will get the same rights on his ancestral property as before. Select the true statement.
(Class 8/Chapter 5/page - 52) Now they needed the black British to search for markets and develop new markets under their industrial colonialism, that is, they wanted to prepare Indians for the market of English products. In this context, the British felt that it was necessary to reform the Indian society. Is. Laws were made to stop the practice of Sati and promote Widow Remarriage. English language education was strongly encouraged. After 1830, the Company allowed Christian missionaries to work freely and even to acquire land and property. In 1850, a new law was made which made it easier to adopt Christianity. A provision was made in this law that if an Indian person adopts Christianity, his right on his ancestral property will remain the same as before.
Which of the following is/are probable cause(s) of the ineffectiveness of the PRIs in India?
1. The transfer of various governance functions—like the provision of education, health, sanitation and water—was not mandated by the 73rd Amendment Act.
2. Lack of finances for PRIs.
3. Despite there being mandatory provisions for reservations for women and SC/STs in the PRIs, there is hardly any representation of these vulnerable groups.
Select the correct option using the codes given below:
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions, but it did not make compulsory transfer of all governance functions to PRIs. The Eleventh Schedule contains 29 subjects related to local governance, such as education, health, sanitation, agriculture, and water management, but actual transfer of powers and functions depends largely on state governments. This is one of the major reasons for the weak functioning of PRIs in many states. In several cases, PRIs exist constitutionally but do not receive su൶cient administrative authority or control over.
In which case(s) did the Supreme Court of India give for the first time the doctrine of ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution?
The doctrine of Basic Structure is a judicial innovation which was propounded by the Judiciary on 24th April 1973 in the Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala case, to put a limitation on the amending powers of the Parliament under Article.
Fill in the blanks based on appropriate terminology - A state is a political institution that governs a definite territory. Represents the __________ people living in.
The word 'state' has been used frequently in this chapter. Keep in mind, it does not mean state governments. When we use the word 'state' we take it in a different meaning than 'government'. The responsibility of the 'government' is to make and implement laws. But the government can change through elections. But a state is a political institution that represents the sovereign people 1. Right to equality: All people are equal in the eyes of law. This means that the law of the country will provide equal protection to all people. This right also states that no citizen can be discriminated against on the basis of religion, caste or gender. Everyone will have the right to equal access to public places like playgrounds, hotels, shops etc. The state cannot discriminate against anyone in.
Recently, Andhra Pradesh’s State Assembly speaker disqualified eight MLAs under anti-defection law, which of the following Schedules deals with Anti defection?
To ensure the stability of elected governments, the 52nd constitutional amendment introduced the ‘anti- defection’ law through the Tenth Schedule in 1985. This Schedule provides that- A member of a House of Parliament or State legislature who voluntarily gives up the membership of their political party or votes against the instructions of their party in a House is liable for disqualification from said House. An independent member when joins any political party after being elected is also liable for Anti-defection. Nominated members of a House are subject to disqualification if they join any political party after six months from assuming their position.
In which article the provision on reservation of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes to Panchayat has been given?
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment (1992) inserted Part IX into the Constitution, covering Articles 243 to 243O. Its main objective was to strengthen local self-government in rural India by giving constitutional recognition to Panchayats. This amendment is considered a major step toward democratic decentralization and grassroots governance. Article 243D specifically deals with reservation in Panchayats. It provides reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), Women, The reservation for SCs and STs must be proportional to their population in the Panchayat area. Additionally, not less than one-third of total seats, including reserved seats, must be reserved for women. Many states later increased women’s reservation to 50%. BCW Bits: Article 243A deals with the Gram Sabha. It provides powers and functions to the Gram Sabha at the village level as determined by state legislatures. Gram Sabha is considered the foundation of direct democracy in rural governance. Article 243B provides for the constitution of Panchayats at village, intermediate, and district levels. It establishes the three-tier Panchayati Raj structure in states with population above a specified limit. Article 243C deals with the composition of Panchayats. It empowers state legislatures to determine Number of seats, Territorial constituencies, Representation structure. Note: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act came into force on April 24, 1993. The Eleventh Schedule contains 29 subjects related to Panchayats. The 74th Constitutional Amendment relates to Urban Local Bodies. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommended the three- tier Panchayati Raj system in 1957. Nagaur (Rajasthan) was the first to implement Panchayati Raj on October 2, 1959. State Election Commission conducts Panchayat elections. State Finance Commission reviews Panchayat finances every five years.
Which of the following Articles in the Constitution of India are exceptions to the Fundamental Right enumerated in Article 14 and Artide-19?
Articles 31 A and 3 IC are exceptions to the Fundamental Rights enumerated in Article 14 and Article 19, as they allow for certain restrictions on equality and property rights in specific contexts for the purpose of agrarian reforms and socioeconomic welfare.
Which of the following best describes the term “Judicial dynamism”?
Judicial activism is also known as “judicial dynamism”. Judicial activism denotes the proactive role played by the judiciary in the protection of the rights of citizens and in the promotion of justice in the society. In other words, it implies the assertive role played by the judiciary to force the other two organs of the government (legislature and executive) to discharge their constitutional duties.
Duty of the State to raise the level of nutrition is related to:
- Article 46- Promotion of educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections.
- Article 47- Duty of the State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health.
- Article 48- Organization of agriculture and animal husbandry.
- Article 48A- Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife.
- Article 49- Protection of monuments and places and objects of national importance.
Which of the following group of States/UTs has only one seat in the Lok Sabha?
Chandigarh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Nagaland, Puducherry and Ladakh have only one Lok Sabha seat each. Tripura, Goa, Meghalaya, Manipur, Dadra & Nagar Haveli, Daman & Diu and Arunachal Pradesh have 2 Lok Sabha seats each. It is noteworthy that the union territories of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu have been merged with each other.
Who comes above the Chief Justice of India in the table of precedence of the Government of India?
The order of precedence above the Chief Justice of India is as follows.
Lord Lytton is not associated with which of the following?
Lord Lytton served as the Viceroy Of India from 1876 to 1880. His tenure was controversial for its ruthlessness in both domestic and foreign affairs. Significant events during his tenure Royal Titles Act 1876- It was an Act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom which officially recognized Queen Victoria (and subsequent monarchs) as “Empress of India”. Delhi Durbar of 1877- The Delhi durbars were grand events organized by the viceroys to mark the coronation of emperors and empresses. In total three Delhi Durbars were held in 1877, 1903 and 1911.
Given below are two statements one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Areas lying within five to eight- degree latitude on either side of the equator receive rainfall throughout the year. Reason (R) : High temperature and high humidity cause convectional rainfall mostly in the noon near the equator. By using the codes given below, select the correct answer: Code :
The climatic region of equatorial line spreads between 50-100 latitudes in both the hemispheres. There are two important features of this climatic region : (1) Constant high temperature throughout the year. (2) Constant high rainfall throughout the year. Hence, assertion (A) is correct . Due to high temperature throughout the year, there is high humidity which results in conventional rains mostly in noon. As the day progresses, the intensity of rain gets reduced. Hence, (R) is also correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Consider the following statements regarding Indus River- 1. The slope of the Indus River plain is very steep.
2. A little more than two-thirds of the Indus Basin is located in India. Choose the true statement-
The Indus River originates in Tibet near Lake Manasarovar. Flowing towards the west, this river enters India from Ladakh. In this part it forms a very beautiful scenic gorge. Many tributaries like Jaskar, Nubra, Shyok and Huza join this river in this region. The Indus River flows through Balochistan and Gilgit and originates from the mountainous region at Attock. Satluj, Beas, Ravi, Chenab and Jhelum join together to form the Indus River near Mithankot in Pakistan. After this the river flows towards the south and finally joins the Arabian Sea towards the east of Karachi. The slope of the Indus River plain is very gentle. A little more than one- third of the Indus Basin is located in Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh, Himachal and Punjab of India and the remaining part is located in Pakistan. The 2,900 km long Indus River is one of the longest rivers in the world.
Which concentration term is temperature independent?
1. Molarity
2. Molality
3. Normality
4. Mole fractions
Concentration terms can be divided into two categories: volume-dependent and mass-dependent. Since volume changes with temperature (due to thermal expansion or contraction) while mass remains constant, any concentration term involving volume depends on temperature, whereas terms based solely on mass or moles are temperature independent. Molality: Molality is defined as the number of moles of solute per kilogram of solvent. Since both moles and mass do not change with temperature, molality is temperature independent. moles of solute m = kg of solvent Mole fractions: Mole fraction is the ratio of the number of moles of a particular component to the total number of moles in the solution. Since it depends entirely on the number of moles (which are mass-based), it is temperature independent. n in x i = å Molarity: Molarity is defined as the number of moles of solute per litre of solution. Because it involves volume, its value changes when the temperature changes. Thus, it is temperature-dependent. moles of solute M = L of solution Normality: Normality is defined as the number of gram equivalents of solute per litre of solution. Like molarity, it relies on the volume of the solution, making it temperature dependent. gram equivalents of solute N = L of solution Therefore, only molality and mole fraction are temperature independent, making statements 2 and 4 correct and option B. the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Troposphere contains almost all weather phenomena
2. The stratosphere is mostly free of clouds and has the ozone layer
3. The Mesosphere protects Earth by burning meteoroids Which statement(s) is/are correct?
The Earth¶s atmosphere is divided into different layers on the basis of temperature variation. Starting from the Earth¶s surface upward, the major layers are:Troposphere,.
Assertion (A) : The Monsoonal rainfall decreases as one goes toward the West and North –West in the Ganga plain. Reason (R) : The moisture bearing Monsoonal winds go higher as one moves up in the Ganga plain. In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct ?
The monsoonal rainfall decreases as one goes towards the west and north-west in the Ganga plain. It means rainfall increases from west to east direction. In the west, plains of Punjab receive an annual rainfall of 600 mm whereas Gangetic plain receives annual rainfall up to 1500 mm. In the plains of Ganga, the humidity in the air decreases gradually and therefore it tends to move upwards. The moisture of monsoonal winds aff ects rain.
'Mithivirdi' Nuclear Power Plant will be set up in collaboration with which of the following countries?
Mithivirdi Nuclear Plant will be set up in collaboration with the United State of America (U.S.A.). It was proposed to be set up in Talaja Taluka Bhavnagar, Gujarat. The project is part of Indo-U.S. Nuclear deal signed in 2008. Recently on 22nd March 2015, Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has cleared the establishment of intake and outfall facility for Nuclear Power Plant at Mithivirdi and clearance of Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ)
Which of the following is not correctly matched ? (Wind) (Country)
The correct match of country and wind is : Wind Country Santa Ana California Haboob Sudan Yamo Japan Mistral France So, Mistral is not correctly matched. The correct answer is option (d)
Which among the following pairs of places have most marked differences in total annual rainfalls even though located approximately along the same latitude?
Among the given pairs Ajmer and Shillong are located along the same latitude i.e., 26o– 27o North. But according to data of rainfall statistics of India, 2018 Ajmer is 423.4 mm per annum whereas in Shillong (East Khasi District), rainfall is 5065.8 mm per annum.
Which one of the following is not correctly matched ? Power Project State
The correct match of the power projects and concerned States is as follows : (Power Project) (State) Jawahar Sagar – Rajasthan Nagarjuna Sagar – Andhra Pradesh Shivsamudram – Karnataka Gandhi Sagar – Madhya Pradesh.
Which Indian state is the largest producer of Coff ee?
In India, mainly two varieties of Coff ee are produced – Arabica and Robusta. India produces only 3.4% of total coff ee produced in the World and Karnataka is the largest coff ee producing state in India. Due to its better taste, there is a high demand in foreign countries. The average temperature of 15oC to 18oC annually is required for better growth of coff ee plants with an essential average rainfall of 150 to 250 cm. For the cultivation of coff ee, slopy mountainous region and lava or loamy soil is best suitable. According to the 2020-21 data for coff ee production in India, Karnataka accounts for 70.5%, Kerala (20.7%) & Tamil Nadu (5.4%) of total production of coff ee.
Which of the following is not true in respect of globalization impact on Indian Agriculture?
Narasimha Rao Government made major modifi cations in its economic policy in 1991 by introducing Globalization in India. It had a large impact on Indian Agriculture which includes an emphasis on cash crops, growth of income inequality, reduction of subsidies and many more. Hence, option (a) is not true in respect of globalization impact on Indian agriculture.
Ranchi Plateau is an example of:
The Ranchi Plateau, located in Jharkhand is a classic example of an uplifted peneplain. A peneplain is a low- relief plain that has been worn down by erosion over a vast period of time until it is almost level. In the case of Ranchi, this Àat surface was later pushed upward by tectonic forces. Peneplain - A near-level surface produced by long-term erosion. Uplifted Peneplain - A peneplain raised by tectonic forces (e.g., Ranchi Plateau). Piedmont Plain - A plain at the foot of a mountain.
Which of the following is not correct for the Balthar soil found in Bihar?
- Balthar Soil is found in the transition zone between the Chota Nagpur plateau and the Ganga plains.
- It is found in a narrow belt extending from Kaimur Plateau to Rajmahal Hills. It is rich in iron content.
- Balthar Soil is less fertile in nature and suitable for the cultivation of maize, jowar-bajra, gram, etc.
- The banghar soil is most suitable for the cultivation of rice in Bihar because it has a high water holding capacity.
Pyrenees mountain ranges separate the countries? (66th Re BPSC)
The Pyrenees Mountains are a chain of mountains in Europe that create the border between France and Spain. The highest peak in the Pyrenees Mountains is Pico de Aneto in the Spanish Pyrenees, with an elevation of 3,404 m (11,168 feet). These mountain ranges are famous for granite, iron ore and limestone. Note: Maginot line separates France and Germany while the Hindenburg line separates Belgium and Germany.
Consider the following statements:
1. Foreign Portfolio Investments (FPIs) are investments in real assets and businesses of a foreign country, such as factories, land, and infrastructure projects whereas Foreign Direct Investments (FDIs) are investments in financial assets of a foreign country, such as stocks, bonds, and mutual funds.
2. FPI is considered a passive form of investment whereas FDI is considered an active and long-term form of investment.
3. FPIs involve higher volatility and risks compared to FDIs.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect. FDI involves investing in real assets and businesses of a foreign country, like factories, land, and infrastructure projects. This establishes a long-term presence and control over foreign operations. FPI involves investing in financial assets of a foreign country, such as stocks, bonds, and mutual funds. This aims for financial returns through capital appreciation, dividends, or interest income. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. FPI is generally considered a passive form of investment, as investors don't actively manage the.
Consider the following pairs: Deficit Description Correct Description
1. Primary deficit Insufficient government revenue to cover normal functioning and services provision.
2. Effective revenue Amount of government borrowing deficit to cover expenses excluding interest payments.
3. Monetised deficit Increase in RBI's treasury bills holdings due to government borrowing. How many of the pairs given above are correct?
- Pair 1: Incorrect. The description for Primary deficit provided in the table is inaccurate. Primary deficit is defined as the fiscal deficit minus interest payments on previous borrowings. It represents the shortfall in government revenues compared to its expenditure, excluding interest payments.
- Pair 2: Incorrect. The description for Effective revenue deficit is not accurate. Effective revenue deficit is the difference between revenue deficit and grants for creation of capital assets. It indicates how much of the revenue deficit is financed through borrowings.
- Pair 3: Correct. The description for Monetised deficit is accurate. It refers to the increase in the net holdings of treasury bills by the Reserve Bank of India as a result of government borrowing, which contributes to inflation in the economy.
Consider the following statements regarding the impact of various policies on industrial development:- 1. The proportion of GDP contributed by the industrial sector increased from 13% in 1950-51 to 26% in 1990-99.
2. During the period 1950-51 to 1990-99, Indian industry was limited to cotton textiles and jute only.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
The achievements of India's industrial sector during the first seven five-year plans have been truly remarkable. GDP provided by the industrial sector. The proportion increased from 13 percent in 1950-51 to 24.6 percent in 1990-91. G.D.P. Increase in share in industries is an important indicator of development. The 6 percent annual growth rate of the industrial sector during this period is commendable. Indian industries were not limited to cotton textiles and jute. In fact, the industrial sector had become diversified largely because of the public sector.
The Information Technology Agreement (ITA) has been in the news recently. It is related to which of the following bodies ?
- The Information Technology Agreement is a plurilateral agreement implemented by the World Trade Organization (WTO) and it was concluded in the 1996 Ministerial Declaration on Trade in Products of Information Technology, which entered into force on 1 July 1997.
- The aim of the treaty is to lower all taxes and tariffs on information technology products by signatories to zero.
- Information Technology Products: a wide range of hardware, software, and services designed to facilitate the management, storage, retrieval, and dissemination of information. This includes items like computers, servers, networking equipment, cloud services, cybersecurity solutions, and more.
In which of the following situations the frictional unemployment would occur?
1. When people move between jobs in the labour market.
2. When people transition into and out of the labour force. Select the answer using the codes given below:
- Frictional unemployment occurs when people move between jobs in the labour market, as well as when people transition into and out of the labour force.
- Movement of workers is necessary for a flexible labour market and helps achieve an efficient allocation of labour across the economy. However, people may not find jobs immediately and need to invest time and effort in searching for the right job.
- This type of unemployment is generally shorter term (less than one month). Frictional unemployment is likely to occur at all points of the business cycle and, like structural unemployment, may not influence wages or inflation.
A company named 'Amazon', registered in the USA, provides digital services such as online retailing, streaming services, and cloud computing globally, including in India, without any physical presence. Which of the following taxes would apply to the revenues of Amazon in India?
- Equalization Levy is levied on companies involved in sales of digital services without any physical presence in India. As Amazon provides digital services in India, it would be subject to Equalization Levy on the income accruing from Indian residents or non-resident companies with a permanent establishment in India.
- Options a, b, and d are incorrect: a) Corporate Tax is charged on companies registered in the USA under relevant laws. As Amazon is registered in the USA, it would not have to pay corporate tax in India. b) Income Tax is imposed on income earned within the jurisdiction of India. Since Amazon operates and earns revenue from digital services globally, income tax would be applicable in the USA but not in India. d) Excise Duty is a tax charged on physical goods produced within the country. Since Amazon provides digital services and not physical goods, excise duty would not be applicable.
MSME GIFT, MSE SPICE, and MSE ODR initiatives have been launched under which of the following schemes of the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprise ?
- RAMP (The Raising & Accelerating MSME Performance programme) is assisted by the World Bank. It aims to improve the performance of micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs) in India. It was launched in 2022. Sub schemes under RAMP are:.
- MSME GIFT Scheme: intends to help MSMEs adopt green technology with interest subvention and credit guarantee support.
- MSE SPICE Scheme: The MSE Scheme for Promotion and Investment in Circular Economy.
- MSE ODR Scheme: The MSE Scheme on Online Dispute Resolution for Delayed Payments.
Which statement is not true about the poverty estimates based on the 68th round of NSSO?
The percentage of persons below the Poverty Line in 2011-12 has been estimated as 25.7% in rural areas, 13.7% in urban areas and 21.9% for the country as a whole. In 2011-12, India had 270 million persons below the Poverty Line (Tendulkar Method) as compared to 407 million in 2004-05, which is a reduction of 137 million persons over the seven-year period.
In context of the medieval history of India, what was miras or watan?
- During the medieval period Village artisans i.e. potters, blacksmiths, carpenters, barbers, even goldsmiths provided specialised services in return for which they were compensated by villagers by a variety of means.
- The most common way of doing so was by giving them a share of the harvest, or an allotment of land, perhaps cultivable wastes, which was likely to be decided by the panchayat.
- In Maharashtra such lands became the artisans miras or watan their hereditary holding.
Which of the following best represents “National Income”?
Option A is Incorrect: Subtracting only depreciation gives Net National Product (NNP). Option B is Incorrect: Adding net factor income from abroad gives Gross National Disposable Income (GNDI). Option C is Correct: National Income = GNP - Depreciation - Indirect Taxes + Subsidies. Option D is Incorrect: Subtracting net factor income from abroad underestimates national income.
Which one of the following committees is not related to tax-reforms in India?
The famous committee in Indian economic reforms is actually the Tarapore Committee, not ³Taraporewala Committee.” It was headed by S. S. Tarapore and dealt with Capital Account Convertibility (CAC). Capital Account Convertibility refers to the freedom to convert domestic currency into foreign currency and vice versa for capital transactions such as investments and asset purchases. The Tarapore Committee was therefore connected with external sector reforms and financial liberalization. The Raja J. Chelliah Committee was one of the most important tax reform committees formed during the economic liberalization period of the 1990s. It is o൶cially known as the Tax Reforms Committee. The committee recommended Reduction in tax rates, Simplification of tax structure, Broadening of tax base, Rationalization of customs and excise duties. Its recommendations played a major role in modernizing India’s taxation system after the 1991 economic reforms. The Vijay Kelkar Committee gave important recommendations on Direct taxes, Indirect taxes, Fiscal reforms, Tax administration modernization. The Kelkar Task Force strongly advocated Simplification of tax laws, Reduction in exemptions, Improvement in tax compliance, Expansion of service tax base. Many later GST-related and tax rationalization ideas were inÀuenced by broader reform thinking associated with Kelkar recommendations. India’s economic reforms after 1991. Following the Balance of Payments crisis, India initiated Liberalization, Privatization, Globalization (LPG reforms), Tax reforms became essential because India earlier had Very high tax rates, Complex tax structures, Narrow tax base, High evasion levels. Committees like Chelliah and Kelkar aimed to create a simpler, growth-oriented, and compliance-friendly tax system. BCW Bits: The Chelliah Committee was formed in the early 1990s during economic liberalization. Manmohan Singh was Finance Minister during the 1991 reforms. The Tarapore Committee dealt with Capital Account Convertibility (CAC). Capital Account Convertibility refers to free movement of capital across borders. The Kelkar Committee recommended simplification of both direct and indirect taxes. GST was introduced in India through the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016. Narasimham Committee is associated with banking sector reforms. The LPG reforms stand for: Liberalization, Privatization, Globalization. India’s 1991 reforms were triggered by a severe Balance of Payments crisis. Tax reforms aim to improve: Revenue collection, Compliance, Simplicity, Economic e൶ciency.
Recently, a Joint Task Force on Investment (JTFI) between India and which Country was Created?
India and Qatar held their inaugural Joint Task Force on Investment (JTFI) meeting in New Delhi on June 6, 2024. This meeting marks the beginning of efforts to enhance investment cooperation between the two countries.
Consider the following statements regarding soap micelles:
1. Soap molecules are structured with a hydrophilic head that is attracted to water and a hydrophobic tail that repels water, which causes the soap to align at the water surface with the tails protruding.
2. In aqueous solution, soap molecules form micelles, where the hydrophobic tails face inward, shielding them from water, and the hydrophilic heads face outward to interact with the water.
3. The formation of micelles enables soap to trap oily dirt within the hydrophobic core, effectively removing it from the washed surface when the soap is rinsed away.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- Statement 1 is correct as it describes the amphiphilic nature of soap molecules. These molecules align at the water surface with the hydrophobic tails protruding out of the water due to their repulsion from the aqueous environment, while the hydrophilic heads remain immersed in the water.
- Statement 2 is correct and further details the structure of micelles in water. The hydrophobic tails of the soap molecules point inward toward the center of the micelle, forming a core that is isolated from the water, while the hydrophilic heads are exposed to the aqueous environment, stabilizing the micelle structure in water.
- Statement 3 is correct as it explains the cleaning action of micelles. By trapping oily dirt within their hydrophobic cores, micelles can encapsulate dirt particles, which are then easily rinsed away with water, effectively cleaning the surface.
Consider the following statements about solutions:
1. A solution is always a liquid that contains either a solid, another liquid, or a gas dissolved in it.
2. Alloys such as brass, which is a mixture of zinc and copper, are considered solid solutions and can vary in composition.
3. In a solution, the solute is the component that dissolves the other component and is usually present in a greater amount than the solvent.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- Statement 1 is incorrect because a solution is not always a liquid; it can also be a solid solution (like alloys) or a gaseous solution (like air)
- Statement 2 is correct as it accurately describes alloys as solid solutions, which are mixtures of two or more metals or a metal and a non-metal and can have variable compositions.
- Statement 3 is incorrect because in a solution, the solvent is the component that dissolves the other component (solute) and is usually present in a larger amount, not the solute.
Chromatography is a technique commonly used for separating a mixture of chemical substances into its individual components. In this context, Chromatography is used for?
1. Identifying the samples of drugs.
2. Determining the nutritional value of the food sample.
3. Comparing the blood and urine samples.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- Chromatography is an analytical technique commonly used for separating a mixture of chemical substances into its individual components.
- There are many types of chromatography e.g. liquid chromatography, gas chromatography, ion-exchange chromatography, affinity chromatography etc. but all of these employ the same basic principles.
- Chromatography is used to:.
- To test drug levels and water purity.
- To determine the nutritional value of the food sample.
- To identify and compare samples of drugs, explosives etc.
- To identify biological samples such as saliva, urine, blood etc. Spotlight:.
With reference to the Satellite-based toll collection system, consider the following statements:
1. It is a GPS based toll collection system.
2. It will enable vehicles to move freely without the need to stop for toll payments.
3. Every vehicle in this GPS-based toll collection system will need an onboard unit (OBU) linked to a constellation of satellites.
4. It will replace the existing radio frequency identification-based FASTag system.
Which of the above statements given above are correct?
Satellite-based toll collection system: It is a GPS based toll collection system. The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) will implement this system. It will enable vehicles to move freely without the need to stop for toll payments. It will capture the vehicle’s registration plate photo and debit the toll amount based on the actual distance traveled by the vehicle on the highway. Every vehicle in this GPS-based toll collection system will need an onboard unit (OBU) linked to a constellation of satellites. The OBU will also connect to a wallet for toll deductions. It will replace the existing radio frequency identification-based FASTag system. Currently, this GPS based toll collection system is in the trial phase.
Which one of the following is the correctly matched pair of a product and the microorganism responsible for it?
Microbiology plays a pivotal role in the production of various food and chemical products. Many industrial processes rely on the metabolic activities of specific bacteria and fungi to convert raw materials into finished goods through fermentation and chemical transformation. Each pairing is determined by the unique way these microbes break down substances: Ethyl Alcohol and Yeast: This is the correct industrial pairing. Saccharomyces cerevisiae, commonly known as Brewer's yeast, performs anaerobic fermentation. It breaks down glucose into ethyl alcohol (ethanol) and carbon dioxide. This process is the foundation of the brewing and baking industries. Cheese and Lactic Acid Bacteria: The pairing in the option is incorrect because Nitrobacter is a nitrifying bacterium found in soil. Cheese production actually requires Lactobacillus or Streptococcus, which ferment lactose into lactic acid, causing milk proteins to coagulate into curd. Acetic Acid and Acetobacter: The pairing in the option is incorrect because Lactobacillus produces lactic acid, not acetic acid. Acetic acid (the main component of vinegar) is produced by Acetobacter aceti, which oxidizes ethyl alcohol into acetic acid in the presence of oxygen. Tarkash Annual PYQ Plus BPSC Concept Wallah.
Which one of the following terms characterizes the interaction between the herpes simplex virus and a human?
The interaction between the herpes simplex virus and a human is characterized as endoparasitism. In any parasitic relationship, one organism (the parasite) benefits by living at the direct expense of another organism (the host). Because a virus is an obligate intracellular entity that must live, replicate, and cause harm inside the host's actual cells, the prefix "endo-" (meaning internal) makes endoparasitism the most precise classification. In ecology and evolutionary biology, long-term interactions between different species are classified by where the organisms live and whether the relationship is mutually beneficial or harmful. Symbiosis (Option A): This is a broad umbrella term used to describe any close, long-term biological interaction between two different organisms. Depending on the setup, these relationships can be helpful, completely neutral, or harmful to the involved species. Parasitism (Option B): This represents a general harmful relationship where one species benefits directly by living at the expense of its host. This category is wide and includes parasites that live on the outside of a body (like ticks) as well as those living inside. Endosymbiosis (Option C): This describes a highly intimate, mutually beneficial relationship where one organism lives directly inside the body or cells of another, and both organisms benefit from the arrangement. A classic example is the mitochondria living inside human cells to produce energy. BCW Bits: Endo- vs. Ecto-: In biological terms, Endo means inside (like endoparasites living in blood or cells), while Ecto means outside (like ectoparasites such as lice, Àeas, or ticks living on the skin). Obligate Parasite: Viruses are considered obligate intracellular parasites, meaning they completely lack the machinery to reproduce on their own and are forced to hijack a host cell to survive.
Which of the following statements correctly describes the function of a spectrometer ?
A spectrometer is an analytical instrument used to measure the wavelengths or frequencies of light (or other types of electromagnetic radiation). By analyzing the spectrum of light emitted, absorbed, or scattered by a material, a spectrometer can provide information about the material’s composition and structure.
Blockchain is a distributed ledger technology that enables secure and transparent record-keeping of transactions across multiple parties without the need for intermediaries. What is the name of the blockchain based project launched by the National Payment Corporation of India ?
Falcon: an open-source project that aims to simplify the management and use of blockchains and is expected to help developers innovate on blockchain-based payment solutions.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding Khudai khidmatgar ?
The Khudai Khidmatgars, also known as the “Red Shirts,” were organized by Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan. They were primarily involved in a non-violent resistance movement in the North-West Frontier Province (now Khyber Pakhtunkhwa, Pakistan). The movement aimed to achieve political and social reforms and sought greater autonomy and self-governance for the region. The Khilafat Movement was an integral part of the broader struggle for India’s independence, but the Khudai Khidmatgars’ focus was on regional issues and non-violent resistance.
Which of the following functions are controlled by the medulla?
Between a simple reflex action such as a change in the size of the pupil and a thought action such as moving a chair, there is another set of muscular movements over which our thinking has no control. Many of these involuntary actions are controlled by the midbrain and hindbrain. All these involuntary actions, such as blood pressure,.
When a sound wave goes from one medium to another, the quantity that remains unchanged is
When a sound wave goes from one medium to another, frequency remains unchanged. When light passes from one medium to another its speed and wavelength get changed but the frequency remains the same (as frequency depends on the source of light). The speed of light in a medium depends on its refractive index. BCW Bits: Wavelength - The distance between two consecutive compressions or two consecutive rarefactions is called wavelength. Wavelength is usually denoted by the Greek letter lambda (λ) and it is equal to the speed (v) of a wave train in a medium divided by its frequency (f). So, λ = v/f. Amplitude – The amplitude is the maximum displacement or distance moved by a point on a vibrating body or wave measured from its equilibrium position. The amplitude of sound depends upon the force with which an object is made to vibrate. The loudness or softness of sound is determined by its amplitude. Note: Pressure does not affect the speed of the sound The speed of sound in humid air is more than the speed of sound in dry air.
What is ‘Gaia-BH3’, recently seen in news?
Astronomers have identified Gaia-BH3, the most massive known stellar black hole in the Milky Way. Discovered through data from the Gaia mission, it causes an unusual ‘wobbling’ of its companion star. Confirmed by ground-based observatories, it boasts a mass 33 times that of our sun, located 1,926 light- years away in Aquila. Gaia-BH1, another nearby black hole, has nearly 10 solar masses.
Why are antioxidants from fresh fruits and vegetables beneficial for health?
- Fruits and vegetables contain vitamins but antioxidants themselves do not directly trigger the synthesis of vitamins.
- While fruits and vegetables contain nutrients that support metabolism, antioxidants themselves primarily function to neutralize harmful free radicals generated during metabolic processes.
- While cellular communication is crucial for maintaining cellular homeostasis and function, antioxidants primarily act to protect cells from oxidative damage rather than directly enhancing cellular communication.
The working principle of the washing machine is
It is a technique in which particles or molecules are separated based on their densities under the influence of gravitational force, by spinning them in a solution around an axis at high speed using centrifugal force. Uses of centrifugal forces: In diagnostic laboratories for blood and urine tests. In the washing machine, to squeeze out water from wet clothes. In dairies and home to separate butter from cream.
The concept of ‘Green Infrastructure’ is related with:
Green Infrastructure refers to a network of natural and semi-natural areas (parks, green roofs, vertical gardens) designed to deliver ecosystem services. It is a key.
Match List I with List II (List I) (List II) Waterfall/Hot Springs Location
1. Durgawati Waterfall. A. Nawada
2. Karkat waterfall B. Kaimur
3. Jiar Kund C. Nalanda
4. Kakolat waterfall D. Bhojpur
5. Brahmakund E. Rohtas
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- The correctly matched columns are:.
- Durgawati Waterfall-Rohtas.
- Karkat waterfall- Kaimur.
- Jiar Kund-Bhojpur.
- Kakolat waterfall-Nawada.
- Brahmakund-Nalanda.
Who highlighted the plight of the peasants of Champaran by writing under pseudonyms like Dukhi, Dukhi Atma, and Dukhi Hridaya?
Peer Muhammad Moonis was a madarsa teacher at Bettiah, who used to write articles under pseudonyms like Dukhi, Dukhi Atma, and Dukhi Hridaya, which were published in the Pratap Newspaper of Kanpur, a paper which distinguished itself for its immoderate expressions on Champaran farmers. BCW Bits: Munis is considered as the founder of fearless anti-colonial Hindi journalism in Bihar. After the Champaran Satyagraha, Munis started “Raiyati Sabha”, for which he was even sentenced to imprisonment “Pratap” newspaper was started from Kanpur by Ganesh Shankar Vidyarthi, in 1913. Some articles by Peer Mohd. Moonis, published in “Pratap” : “Champaran Mein Andher”, by Dukhi - Pratap, 13 March 1916 “Champaran ki Durdasha”, by Dukhi Hridaya - Pratap, 16 April 1916 “Champaran me phir Nadirshahi”, by Dukhi Aatma - Pratap, 30 August 1920.
Recently, the Union Government has given its sanction to construct the second AIIMS in which district of Bihar?
Recently, the Union Government has given its sanction to construct the second AIIMS at Sobhan village in Darbhanga district of Bihar. The construction of the proposed AIIMS at Sobhan village would lead to massive expansion of Darbhanga town. Recently, the Bihar CM Nitish Kumar laid the foundation stones for a 2,100-bed hospital and academic building at Darbhanga Medical College Hospital (DMCH) and also inaugurated a Didi Ki Rasoi in the surgical block. The Bihar CM also laid the foundation of a 400-bed surgical block, to be built at a cost of Rs 194 crore, and the construction work on the Rajkiya Maharani Rameshwari Bhartiya Chikitsa Vigyan Sansthan, Mohanpur.
Choose the incorrect statement related to Veer Kunwar Singh, the hero of Bihar in the Revolution of 1857.
Birth- 1780 Jagdishpur village of Bhojpur district (landlord) Father- Sahibzada Singh Joined the rebellion at the age of about 80 Marriage- Devasingha (Gaya) Veer Kunwar Singh was born in a Rajput zamindar family of Jagdishpur in Bhojpur district. He established a factory for making guns and ammunition in Jagdishpur. He along with Nana Saheb took part in the battle of Kanpur.
During whose reign did the king of Egypt, Ptolemy II Philadelphus, send his ambassador Dionysius to Pataliputra?
The ruler of Egypt, Ptolemy II Philadelphus, sent an ambassador named ‘Dionysus’ to the court of Bindusara. It is known from ‘Divyavadana’ that an astrologer of Ajivika sect, Pingal Vatsa, lived in his court. Chanakya was also the Prime Minister during the reign of Bindusara.
According to the Bihar Economic Survey (2021-2022), what was the rate of growth of Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) of Bihar in 2020-2021?
According to the Bihar Economic Survey (2021- 2022), the rate of growth of the Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) of Bihar in 2020-2021 was 2.5%. Note: As per Bihar Economic Survey (2022-23), the GSDP of Bihar in the financial year 2021-22 was.
Which agroclimatic zone of Bihar is drought prone?
lanation:- Bihar is divided into four agro-climatic zones based on rainfall, temperature, terrain, and soil: 1. Zone-I: North-Western Alluvial Plain.
Leading fish producer districts of Bihar are
Among the sub-sectors, livestock and fisheries have grown at a pace of 10 per cent and 7 per cent, respectively. As of 2020-21, the total foodgrain production was estimated at a record of.
The earliest description of Bakhtiyar khilji's invasion of Bihar is in
Minhaj-i-Siraj, a Persian historian composed Tabqat-I-Nasiri which gives a detailed account of the military achievements and invasion by Bakhtiyar khilji. It is to be noted that Bakhtiyar Khlji was the first Turk to Invade Bihar. Bakhtiyar Khilji destroyed Nalanda University, Odantapuri University & Vikramshila University. Bakhtiyar Khilji was killed by his associate Alimardan and his tomb is in Imadpur, Bihar Sharif.
Which Sanctuary is the largest in Bihar?
In terms of area, and sequence of the above Wildlife, Bird sanctuaries in descending order are: Kaimur Sanctuary > Valmiki Wildlife Sanctuary > Bhimband Sanctuary > Gautam Buddha Sanctuary. A list of various wildlife/ bird sanctuaries of Bihar is given below. Name Location Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary Kaimur Valmiki National Park (VTR) West Champaran.
The Railway Zone Headquater Hajipur is located in –
Rail transport in Bihar started in the year 1860-62 when East India Company laid the main lines of Railway going from banks of the Ganges to Kolkata. According to the data of 2015-16 the length of the railway line in Bihar is 3730.57 km. Currently, Indian Railway has been divided among 17 zones (Headquarters). Among these headquarters of Indian Railway in Bihar, only the East Central Railway located at Hajipur. Hajipur Headquarters started functioning since 1 October, 2002. Of the 17 railway zones in India, the lines of 5 Headquarter's passing through Bihar, are as follows :.
Which river in Bihar changed its course in the year 2008 and caused calamity?
Kosi river is a major tributary of the Ganga. The length of the Kosi river is 720 km in India. It merges in the Ganga near Bhagalpur. The Kosi river is known for its dangerous fl oods and especially for maximum shifting of its course that is why it is considered as the "Sorrow of Bihar". On 28 August 2008, Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh declared the Kosi fl ood disaster as a National Calamity.
According to Bihar economy survey 2023-24 which bank has very poor CD ratio in Bihar?
The survey reports that the State continues to see flight of capital via the scheduled commercial banks, which has much lower CD ratio than the national average. It means that banks continue to accumulate deposits from the state but are reluctant to extend credit. Among the banks the SBI has very poor CD ratio of 36.1% which is much lower than the national average CD ratio of 71.2%
Which one of the following districts does not have Dharwar geological formations ?
Munger, Jamui and Nawada in south-eastern Bihar are part of Dharwar geological formations. Rohtas is a part of Vindhyan rocks geological formations.
Which of the following states are almost identical in their shapes?
Uttarakhand & Himachal Pradesh: On the political map of India, both of these Western Himalayan states feature a roughly quadrilateral or parallelogram-like outline. Their geometric appearances, longitudinal/ latitudinal alignments, and mountainous topographies create a strong visual symmetry. Bihar & Jharkhand: Bihar is distinctly rectangular or quadrilateral in shape, whereas Jharkhand forms an irregular polygon that does not mimic Bihar's outline. Chhattisgarh & Odisha: Chhattisgarh is famous for its unique shape resembling a seahorse (Hippocampus), while Odisha has a broad, coastal, and semi-triangular appearance BCW Bits: Jharkhand was formed on 15 November 2000. Capital of Bihar = Patna. Capital of Jharkhand = Ranchi. Chotanagpur Plateau lies mainly in Jharkhand. River Ganga divides Bihar into North Bihar and South Bihar plains. Bihar shares a border with Nepal in the north. Odisha has a long coastline along the Bay of Bengal. Chhattisgarh is rich in coal and iron ore resources. Tarkash Annual PYQ Plus BPSC Concept Wallah.
Among the following newspapers of Bihar, which was the first to get published?
Among the following, Patna Harkara was the first newspaper published in Bihar, with its inaugural issue released on April 21, 1855, by owner-editor Sah Abu Torab. It was published from Khaja Kalan in Patna City, on the 1st, 11th, and 21st day of every month, featuring essays, government orders, and advertisements. It is recognized as the first newspaper to get published from Bihar. It supported English East India Company policies while opposing Christian missionary activities. It consisted of 12 pages and utilized correspondents known as Mukhbirs. The paper ceased publication in 1856, lasting for only a year.
As per the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5), 2019 - 2021, what proportion of households in Bihar live in a pucca house?
As per NFHS-5 (2019-21), only about 34-35% (approx. one-third) of households in Bihar live in pucca houses, which is significantly lower than the national average (approx. 60%)
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GS Mock Test VIII | 100 MCQs with Explanations
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