GS Mock Test IX for BPSC & Bihar Exams: 100 MCQs with Answers & Explanations
Practice 100 General Studies MCQs with click-to-reveal answers and detailed explanations for BPSC CCE, BPSC TRE, Bihar SSC and Bihar Daroga exams. Covers History, Indian Polity, Geography, Economics, General Science and Bihar Special GK.
Subjects covered
- Indian History
- Indian Polity & Constitution
- Geography
- Indian Economy
- General Science
- Bihar History & Geography
- Bihar Economy, Polity & Culture
- Bihar Special GK
- Important General Studies Facts
Ideal for: BPSC CCE, BPSC TRE, Bihar SSC, Bihar Police / Bihar Daroga and other Bihar competitive examinations.
About this mock test
Test and improve your General Studies preparation with this comprehensive 100-question GS Mock Test designed for BPSC CCE, BPSC TRE, Bihar SSC, Bihar Daroga and other Bihar government examinations. The test covers the most important areas of General Studies, including Ancient, Medieval and Modern Indian History, Indian Polity, Geography, Indian Economy, General Science and Bihar Special GK.
Each question is followed by a click-to-reveal answer and explanation, allowing you to attempt the question independently before checking the correct answer. The explanations are designed to help you understand the underlying concept rather than simply memorising the answer.
Use this mock test to assess your preparation, identify weak areas, revise important facts and improve accuracy and speed before the examination. The questions are structured around the type of factual, conceptual and analytical questions commonly encountered in competitive examinations.
Consider the following statements about Satavahana Dynasty:
1. Simuka was the founder of the Satavahana Dynasty.
2. They patronised the Prakrit literature.
3. They were followers of Hinduism.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- The Satavahanas with their capital in the Deccan are also known as the Andhras in the Puranas.
- Simuka founded the Satavahana Dynasty and he is credited with destroying the Shunga Power.
- Puranic records indicate that Simuka, the first monarch, may have started to rule about 230 BCE.
- The Satavahanas were followers of Hinduism and patronised the Prakrit literature.
With reference to Trilochana-Pala, which of the following statements are correct?
1. He was titled Maha-Mandaleshvara in copper plate inscriptions.
2. His inscriptions record the donation of Ekallahara village to a Brahmin.
3. The mythical origin of his dynasty is traced to a vessel called Chuluka.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Trilochana-Pala was a prominent ruler of the Chalukyas reign of Kanishka, the famous ruler of the Kushan dynasty. The council is believed to have been held in Kashmir, especially at Kundal-vana, during the 1st–2nd century CE. The council is closely associated with the rise of Mahayana Buddhism. Buddhist scholars compiled commentaries on sacred texts, Sanskrit gained importance in Buddhist literature, and Buddhism spread further into Central Asia and China through the Silk Route. The Third Buddhist Council was held at Pataliputra under the guidance of Moggaliputta Tissa during Ashoka’s reign. Ashoka played a major role in spreading Buddhism to Sri Lanka and other regions. Menander, was an Indo-Greek ruler associated with Buddhism and is mentioned in the famous text Milinda Panha. Harshavardhana, also supported Buddhism and organized religious assemblies, but no Buddhist Council is associated with his reign. BCW Bits: of Lata branch in the 11th century CE. In his copper-plate inscriptions (such as the Surat plates), he explicitly bears the title Maha-Mandaleshvara, indicating his status as a powerful regional lord or feudatory. His 1050 CE copper-plate inscription (the Eklahare plates) specifically records the religious donation of Ekallahara village to a Brahmin named Taraditya, to support religious rites and scholarship. council Held at Presided by Ruler/ patronage by Outcome Buddhist 1st (483 BC) Mahakasyapa Ajatshatru Compilation of Vinaya Pitaka(upali) and Sutta Pitaka (Ananda) Sattapani cave (saptaparni cave Rajgriha 2nd (383 BC) Vaishali Sabakami Kalasoka Split into two groups Mahasanghikas & sthavir-vadins 3rd (250 BC) Pataliputra Mogaliputta Tissa Ashoka Compilation of Abhidhamma Pitaka 4th (72 AD) Kunndalvan (Kashmir) Vasumitra deputed by Ashwaghosha Kanishka Split into Hinyana and Mahayana. The Gandhara School of Art Àourished during Kushan rule. Buddha images became popular during the Kushan period. The Silk Route helped spread Buddhism to Central Asia and China. Buddhism originated in the 6th century BCE.
Which of the following items were not asked by Bindusar from Antiochus-I?
Bindusara, the son of Chandragupta Maurya, famously requested sweet wines, dried figs, and a philosopher from Antiochus I, the Seleucid king of Syria. While Antiochus complied with the requests for wine and figs, he was unable to fulfill the request for a philosopher due to Greek laws prohibiting their sale.
Which of the following statements is not correct in the context of Buddhist Sangha?
Born at Talwandi (Nankana Sahib in Pakistan), Guru Nanak travelled widely before establishing a centre at Kartarpur (Dera Baba Nanak on the river Ravi). A regular worship that consisted of the singing of his own hymns was established there for his followers. Irrespective of their former creed, caste or gender, his followers ate together in the common kitchen (langar). The sacred space thus created by Guru Nanak was known as dharmsal. It is now known as Gurdwara.
How many Vedas are there?
The most outstanding works of the Vedic period are the four Vedas – Rig Veda, Sama Veda, Yajur Veda and Atharva Veda. Rig Veda: The oldest Veda is the Rigveda, composed about 3500 years ago. The Rigveda includes 1028 hymns (sukta) and 10,580 verses, divided into 10 mandalas. These hymns are in praise of various gods and goddesses. The most prominent god was Indra (250 Rigvedic hymns are devoted to him) followed by Agni and Varuna. The 9th Mandala of Rig Veda is attributed to Soma (a plant from which special drink was prepared). These hymns were composed by sages (rishis). The universally famous Gayatri mantra (Savitri) is also in Rig-Veda. The varna system, Four-fold division of society, ‘Sudra’, Gamester’s Lament, and Purusha Shukta Hymns are mentioned in this Vedic text. Samaveda: Known as the Veda of melodies and chants, Samaveda dates back to 1200-800 BCE. This Veda is related to public worship. There are 1549 verses (except 75 verses, all have been taken from Rigveda) There are two Upanishads embedded in Samaveda – Chandogya Upanishad and Kena Upanishad, The Samaveda is considered the root of Indian classical music and dance, There are three recensions of the text of the Samaveda – Kauthuma, Raṇayaniya and Jaimaniya, Samaveda is categorized into two parts – Part-I includes melodies called Gana & Part-II includes three verses book called Archika. The hymns of the Sama Veda were recited by Udgatri. Yajurveda: Stands to mean ‘Worship Knowledge’, Yajurveda dates back to 1100-800 BCE; corresponding with Samaveda. It compiles ritual-offering mantras/chants. These chants were offered by the priest alongside a person who used to perform a ritual (in most cases yajna fire.) It has two types – Krishna (Black/Dark) & Shukla (White/Bright), Krishna Yajurveda has an un-arranged, unclear, motley collection of verses, and Shukla Yajurveda has arranged and clear verses, There are four surviving recensions of the Krishna Yajurveda – Taittiriya saṃhita, Maitrayani saṃhita, Kaṭha saṃhita, and Kapisthala saṃhita. Its hymns were recited by Adhvaryus. Atharvaveda: Stands to mean a tatpurusha compound of Atharvan, an ancient sage, and knowledge (atharvan+knowledge), it dates back to 1000-800 BCE. The daily procedures of life are very well enumerated in this Veda, it has 730 hymns/ suktas, 6000 mantras, and 20 books, called a Veda of magical formulas, it includes three primary Upanishads – Mundaka Upanishad, the Mandukya. The Upanishad, and the Prashna Upanishad, Paippalada and the Saunakiya are two surviving recensions of Atharvaveda. The 20 books are arranged by the length of the hymns they contain. This Veda contains hymns many of which were charms and magic spells which are meant to be pronounced by the person who seeks some benefit, or more often by a sorcerer who would say it on his or her behalf.
With which religion are the Anguttara Nikaya and Digha Nikaya associated?
The Anguttara Nikaya and Digha Nikaya are two of the five Nikayas, or collections, in the Sutta Pitaka, which is one of the “three baskets” that compose the Pali Canon of Theravada Buddhism.
What were the gold coins issued during the Gupta period called?
lanation:- During the Gupta period, gold coins were commonly known as dinars. These coins were widely used and were significant in trade and commerce. The dinars of the Gupta period were renowned for their high quality and artistic design, often featuring the images of the rulers and various deities. The use of dinars reflects the prosperity and economic stability of the Gupta Empire. Explanation:- Kalidasa is associated with the following works:.
In the context of various travellers who visited India during the reign of different dynasties, consider the following pairs: Travellers Dynasty
1. Ibn-Batuta Tughlaqs
2. Marco Polo Vijayanagar
3. Domingo Paes Kakatiyas Which of the pairs given above are correct?
Pair 1 is correct: Ibn Battuta visited India during the Tughlaq dynasty. His travels through India took place between 1334 and 1342, during the rule of Muhammad bin Tughlaq. Pair 2 is incorrect: Marco Polo arrived on the Coromandel Coast of India in AD 1292. He entered the kingdom of the Tamil Pandyas, near Tanjore. He visited southern India during the reign of Rudramma Devi of the Kakatiya Dynasty.
In which of the following battles are the main opponents not correctly stated?
The Second Battle of Panipat was fought between the forces of Samrat Hem Chandra Vikramaditya, popularly called Hemu, the Hindu king who was ruling North India from Delhi, and the army of Akbar, on November 5, 1556. It was a decisive victory for Akbar's generals Khan Zaman I and Bairam Khan. The Battle of Haldighati was a battle fought on 18 June 1576 between the armies of the Rana of Mewar, Maharana Pratap, and the Mughal emperor Akbar's forces, led by Man Singh I of Amber. The First Battle of Panipat was fought between the forces of Babur and Ibrahim Lodhi. The Battle was fought on April 21, 1526, and Lodhi was defeated. It led to the foundation of the Mughal Empire in the Indian subcontinent.
Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj was an Indian ruler and a member of the Bhonsle Dynasty, who carved out his own independent kingdom from the declining Adilshahi Sultanate of Bijapur. Maharashtra's deputy CM, Devendra Fadnavis has unveiled Shivaji's statue in which of the following countries recently ?
- A 12-feet statue of Shivaji was unveiled in Mauritius's Maharashtra Bhavan, contributing to the enhanced soft power between the 2 countries.
- Soft power is the ability to shape the preferences of others through appeal and attraction.The three pillars of soft power are: Political values, culture, and foreign policy.
- The sculpture was created in India by a Delhi-based artist and sent to the island nation in a container ship.
Who among the following Sultans had adopted title first as ‘Hazrat-e-Ala’ and then ‘Sultan’?
Sher Shah Suri was the founder of the Suri Empire in India, with its capital in Sasaram in modern-day Bihar. He introduced the currency of rupee. An ethnic Afghan ruler, Sher Shah took control of the Mughal Empire in 1540. After his accidental death in 1545, his son Islam Shah became his successor.
Who was the first Mughal ruler who fought against the British?
Josiah Child was Governor of Surat and Bombay and a trade negotiation with then Mughal King Aurangzeb (1689) broke off. This angered the officials of EIC and they waged a war against the Mughals. Not to their surprise, they were defeated and begged for pardon. Aurangzeb also imposed fines on them.
Consider the following statements regarding Rowlatt Act.
1. This law was implemented to curb fundamental rights like freedom of expression and to give more powers to the police.
2. Rowlatt Satyagraha, started in protest against the Rowlatt Act, was the first All-India struggle against the British government. Select the true statement.
(Class 8/Chapter 8/page - 98) In 1919, Gandhiji led a Satyagraha against the Rowlatt act recently passed by the British. This law was implemented to curb fundamental rights like freedom of expression and to give more powers to the police. Mahatma Gandhi and other nationalist leaders believed that the government had no right to curb the basic liberties of the people. The Rowlatt Satyagraha was the first all-India struggle against the British government, although it was largely confined to the cities.
What were the consequences of the American Civil War on India?
1. Indian weavers had faced the problem of Raw material.
2. British dependence on Indian agriculture increased. Select the true statement.
(Class 8/Chapter 8/page - 104) Due to the continued struggles of the Indian people, a provision for provincial autonomy was made in the Governor of India Act of 1935. The government announced that elections would be held for provincial legislatures in 1937. When the results of these elections came, Congress governments were formed in 7 out of 11 provinces.
Consider the following pairs: Place Historical events
1. Varanasi Annie Besant established the Central Hindu College
2. Mathura A temple dedicated to Mother India was inaugurated by Gandhi.
3. Lucknow An armed robbery was organized by revolutionaries of the HRA
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- In July 1898, Annie Besant founded the Central Hindu collage in Varanasi. It was later dedicated to Pt. Madan Mohan Malviya and eventually became the nucleus of Banaras Hindu University in 1916.
- The 'Bharat Mata Mandir was constructed by Babu Shiv Prasad Gupta between 1918 and 1924. It is located in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh. Mahatma Gandhi inaugurated the 'Bharat Mata Mandir temple on October 25, 1936.
- The Kakori Train Robbery took place on August 9, 1925, in Kakori, a village near Lucknow. Ram Prasad Bismil and Ashfaqullah Khan, members of the Hindustan Republican Association planned the robbery.
Consider the following statements:
1. Dissatisfaction with British rule intensified.
2. Indians were disallowed from possessing arms.
3. The press were put under strict Censorship. In context of the colonial India, the above mentioned statements perfectly relates to?
- Post 1857, the dissatisfaction with British rule intensified specially in the 1870s and 1880s.
- The Arms Act was passed in 1878, disallowing Indians from possessing arms.
- Also in 1878 the Vernacular Press Act was enacted in an effort to silence those who were critical of the government.
- The Act allowed the government to confiscate the assets of newspapers including their printing presses if the newspapers published anything that was found "objectionable".
- In 1883, there was a furore over the attempt by the government to introduce the Ilbert Bill.
- The bill provided for the trial of British or European persons by Indians, and sought equality between British and Indian judges in the country.
- But when white opposition forced the government to withdraw the bill, Indians were enraged. The event highlighted the racial attitudes of the British in India.
- Therefore all the above mentioned events took place during the second half of 19th century.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding Vellore Mutiny ?
The Vellore Mutiny of 1806 was the first significant and large-scale rebellion by Indian soldiers (sepoys) against the British East India Company. The mutiny was sparked by various grievances, including cultural and religious impositions, and although it was suppressed quickly, it served as a precursor to later rebellions, including the larger Sepoy Mutiny of 1857.
The British government during the first half of 19th century faced huge challenges from organized criminal gangs known as Thugs. These thugs conducted robbery raids and offered human sacrifice to their deity. William Henry Sleeman is best known for suppression of thugee in 1830s. Who appointed Henry Sleeman to supress the thugs?
- During 1836 – 1848, a series of acts were passed to supress the thugee. The acts outlawed the practice of thuggee, which was prevalent in North and Central India.
- The thugs were organized criminal gangs who belonged to both the Hindu and Muslim community.
- In 1835, the 'Thuggee and Dacoity Department' was created by William Bentinck and William Henry Sleeman was appointed as its superintendent to supress the thugs.
The Vital Vidhvansak, the first monthly journal to have the untouchable people as its target audience was published by
An activist born in the Mahar caste, Gopal Baba Walangkar, also known as Gopal Krishna, (1840-1900) is generally considered to be the pioneer of the Dalit movement. He devoted his entire life to releasing the untouchable people from their historic socio- economic oppression. He stressed that caste was contrived by the Aryan invaders to control the Anaryans (indigenous people). In 1888, he began publishing the monthly journal titled Vital-Vidhvansak (Destroyer of Brahmanical or Ceremonial Pollution), which was the first to have untouchable people as its target audience. It was targeted against the Brahmanical orthodoxy. He also wrote articles for Marathi-language newspapers such as Sudharak and Deenbandhu and also wrote couplets in Marathi to inspire the people. In 1889, he published Vital Viduvansan (Annihilation of Ceremonial Pollution), which protested the position of untouchables in society and raised consciousness regarding what those people should expect. He addressed this pamphlet, which was crafted as a collection of 26 questions, to the elites of Maharashtrian society. Walangkar also founded the Anarya Dosh- Parihar Mandali which attempted to petition for the recruitment of Mahars, Chamar, and Mangs to the British army after the gradual dismissal after the Revolt of 1857.
Which of the following statements regarding the Sanyasi revolt is incorrect?
Sanyasi Revolt: Statement 1 is correct: The Bengal Famine of 1770 caused widespread devastation, leading to severe food shortages and economic hardship. This hardship, coupled with the British East India Company’s policies like the zamindari system, which concentrated land ownership and increased taxes, placed immense pressure on the livelihoods of peasants and mendicants like Sanyasis and Fakirs. These factors compelled groups of Sanyasis and Fakirs to revolt against the Britishers. Statement 2 is incorrect: Equal participation of Hindus and Muslims characterised the uprisings, which is why it is sometimes also known as the Fakir Rebellion. Statement 3 is correct: Debi Chaudhrani, a female zamindar of Manthana Estate actively participated in the rebellion which indicates the role of women in response to British policies. Statement.
Match the following ministers with their respective portfolios in the Interim Government of 1946: (Ministers) (Portfolio)
1. Jawaharlal Nehru
Jawaharlal Nehru was the Minister for External Affairs. Liaquat Ali Khan was the Minister for Finance. Sardar Patel was the Minister for Home. C. Rajagopalachari was the Minister for Education. Other Ministries Baldev Singh: Defence Dr. John Mithai: Industries and Supplies C.H. Bhabha: Works, Mines, and Power Rajendra Prasad: Food and Agriculture Asaf Ali: Railways Jagjivan Ram: Labour T.T. Chundrigar: Commerce Abdur Rab Nishtar: Communication Gazanfar Ali Khan: Health Jogendra Nath Mandal: Law.
Which of the following was a non-violent movement in India?
- The Bardoli Satyagraha, led by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in 1928, was a major non-violent peasant movement in India. It was a tax revolt against an unjust increase in land revenue imposed by the British authorities. The movement successfully employed methods of non-cooperation and civil disobedience, leading to a partial victory for the peasants.
- The other options listed were all armed rebellions or uprisings, not non-violent movements.
The Defence of India Act 1915 was passed mainly to?
The Defence of India Act was passed in 1915 primarily to smash the Ghadr movement. There were large scale detentions without trial, special courts giving extremely severe sentences, numerous court-martials of army men.
What is the significant book titled "Power Within" about?
Power Within introspects on this practice as it captures the civilizational wisdom of Bharat through the lived experience of Prime Minister Narendra Modi. The book delves into the fifty years of his public life and explores how he discovered his purpose, the seeds of which were sown in his formative years.
Who had said about the Bengal partition that the partition announcement felt like a bombshell?
Surendranath Banerjee is also known as Rashtraguru, he founded Indian National Association in 1876. BCW Bits: He was also the editor of the newspaper The Bengalee which was founded in 1862 by Girish Chandra Ghosh. He was appointed as President of INC twice, first in 1895 at Poona and Second in 1902 at Ahmedabad. He left Congress and founded a new organization Indian National Liberation in.
Who used Hooghly as a base for piracy in the Bay of Bengal?
The Portuguese used Hooghly as a base for piracy in the Bay of Bengal. BCW Bits: Portuguese reached Bihar(Patna) via Hooghly in the 17th century. They came to Bihar mainly for the trade of cotton cloth. Hooghly was in a good position in Industry and agriculture and was the main economically growing district of West Bengal during the 16th century. They sailed from the Bay of Bengal to Hooghly to avoid customs duty. Due to increased piracy and slave trade by the Portuguese the port of Hooghly was sacked by Shah Jahan’s forces in 1632. Mughal chronicles, Lahori’s Padshahnama, and Inayat Khan’s Shahjahanama provide us with accounts of this event. The Portuguese were the first Europeans to come to India and the last ones to leave. The Portuguese made the 1st Christian Church in 1599 in Bandel (Bengal). Francisco de Almeida was appointed as the first Portuguese governor of India. He introduced the Blue Water Policy.
Consider the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG):
1. The office of the CAG is provided by Article 148 of the Indian Constitution.
2. The CAG is the guardian of the public purse only at the Centre and not at the state.
3. The CAG was called as the most important officer under the Constitution of India by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). The Indian Audit and Accounts Department was created during British rule in 1753. The CAG is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department. He is the guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country at both the levels of the Centre and the state. His duty is to uphold the Constitution of India and the laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration. This is the reason why Dr. B.R. Ambedkar had said that the CAG shall be the most important Officer under the Constitution of India. He is one of the bulwarks of the democratic system of government in India: the others being the Supreme Court, the Election Commission and the Union Public Service Commission.
Match List-I with List-II List-I List-II 1. Elections a. Part XVIII 2. Tribunals b. Part XIV-A 3. Official Language c. Part XVII 4. Emergency Provisions d. Part XV
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Elections- Part XV Official Language- Part XVII Emergency Provisions- Part XVIII.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Lok Sabha general elections?
1. Candidates have to mention details about their Social Media accounts (if any) at the time of filing nominations.
2. Any political content in the form of photos or videos uploaded on the self-accounts on the website will not be treated as political advertisements.
3. Representation of the People Act,(RPA) 1951 does not prohibit the conduct of Exit polls and dissemination of their results by means of electronic media.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- Statement 1 is correct According to the Election commission of India, a candidate who is contesting in the election of Lok Sabha, if he/she owns an Authentic social media account should be informed by the candidate in para 3 of Form-26 at the time of filing of nomination.
- Statement 2 is correct. Any political content in the form of messages/ comments/ photos/ videos posted/uploaded on the 'blogs/ self accounts' on the website will not be treated as a political advertisement and therefore would not require pre- certification, even if the same is posted/uploaded by the political parties/ candidates.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. According to section 126 A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, exit polls cannot be conducted or publicized through print, or electronic media disseminated in any other manner.
Consider the following statements for the ‘Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI)’:
1. It is in charge of carrying out the Insolvency Bankruptcy Code.
2. It is a quasi-judicial body.
Which of the above statements are correct?
- The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) was founded in accordance with the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (Code)
- It is in charge of carrying out the Bankruptcy and Insolvency Code (IBC)
- It has regulatory oversight over the Insolvency Professionals, Insolvency Professional Agencies, Insolvency Professional Entities and Information Utilities.
- It writes and enforces rules for processes, namely, corporate insolvency resolution, corporate liquidation, individual insolvency resolution and individual bankruptcy under the Code.
- It simultaneously carries out quasi-judicial, quasi-executive, and quasi-legislative duties.
Who was the Governor General of Bengal at the time when the Permanent Settlement was implemented in Bengal?
(Class 8/Chapter 3/page - 28) The Ryotwari system, also known as the Munro system, was first tried by Captain Alexander Reid in the areas conquered from Tipu Sultan. Later Thomas Munro developed this system and gradually this system was implemented in the whole of Southern India. Reed and Munro felt that there were no traditional landowners in the South. Therefore, his argument was that this arrangement should be made directly with the farmers i.e. ryots and before estimating the revenue, a separate survey should be done carefully. As a mercantilist company it was necessary for the company to invest in land and improve farming in order to remain healthy about its revenue income. Based on this very need, the Company implemented the Permanent Settlement system in Bengal, in which it gave the landlords the right to collect rent and permanently fixed the amount to be paid by them. Cornwallis (1793) was the Governor General of Bengal when the Permanent Settlement was implemented.
Recently, as per the Bihar Higher Judicial Services (Amendment) Rules, 2023, and Bihar Civil Services (Judicial Branch) Recruitment Amendment Rules, 2023, the quota of reservation in lower judiciary has been raised to ?
- The state/cabinet gave its nod to provide 10% reservation for the economically weaker section (EWS) in the lower judicial services. It is in pursuance of the amendment made by the Centre in 2019.
- It has increased the quantum of quota in the lower judiciary to 60%
The term ‘Democratic Polity’ mentioned in the Preamble to Indian Constitution is based on the doctrine of?
A democratic polity, as mentioned in the Preamble, is based on the doctrine of popular sovereignty. The doctrine of popular sovereignty says that the supreme power is possession by the people.
The Constitution envisages a special administrative system of areas notified in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule. What is/are the principal objective of these provisions?
1. To protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes and Scheduled Castes in such areas
2. To determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats in such areas
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- Statement 1 is incorrect. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration of the tribal areas in the four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. The main objective of these provisions is to protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes in such areas. There is no mention of Scheduled Caste.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The Panchayats Extension to Scheduled Areas Act (PESA) was enacted to extend the Panchayati raj system to the Fifth Schedule areas. PESA lays down the exceptions and modifications necessary in the law, both the constitutional provisions as well as the State Panchayati raj legislations in the Fifth Schedule areas to determine Panchayats' powers, authority and responsibilities. This Panchayats Extension to Scheduled Areas Act (PESA) is not applicable to the sixth schedule areas.
In which of the following cases the Supreme Court ruled that the right to livelihood is a part of the right to life (a fundamental right)?
Corporation Class-8, Ch-4, Page-56 The court gave an important decision in the case of Olga Tellis vs. Bombay Municipal Corporation. In this decision, the court described the right to livelihood as a part of the right to life. 5. (D) 34 Class-8, Ch-4, Page-57 Number of judges in India 8. (C) Areas or settlements where people of mainly Accepted Order Name of court Working Blank position A Supreme Ghettoization - This term is generally used for an court.
The Right to Constitutional Remedies comes under the
Fundamental rights are the right that grants Equality in every aspect irrespective of race, color, caste, religion, or gender. The Fundamental rights are mentioned under Part III of the Indian Constitution in Articles 12 to 35. According to the question, the right to Constitutional Remedies (art 32) comes under Fundamental rights. This procedure of asking the court to preserve or safeguards the citizens’ Fundamental right can be done in different ways. Note: Article 32 was cited as the “Heart and soul” of the Indian constitution by B.R. Ambedkar. The court can issue various kinds of writs for protecting the rights of the citizens. Habeas corpus Mandamus Prohibition Quo warranto Certiorari Thus, the right to Constitutional Remedies provides legal remedies for the protection of rights against their violation by the state or other institutions. It gives the citizens of India the power to move to the Supreme Court or High Court for the enforcement of these rights.
What is the retirement age of the Judges of the Supreme Court?
Article 124(2)- The age of retirement for Supreme Court judges is 65 years. The Chief Justice of India and the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President under clause (2) of Article 124 of the Constitution. A judge of the Supreme Court can resign by writing a letter to the President. The tenure of a High Court judge is not fixed by the Constitution, however under Article 217(1) -High Court judges retire at 62. He can resign by writing to the President anytime after the appointment.
Who of the among can be appointed as a judge of Supreme Court?
A person to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court should have the following qualifications:.
What is the effect of prorogation on the bills pending in Parliament ?
Prorogation is the act of formally ending a session of Parliament. When a session is prorogued, all the business pending in the House, including bills, motions, and resolutions, is carried over to the next session. The bills do not lapse due to prorogation; they continue from where they left off when Parliament reconvenes. This is in contrast to the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, where most bills, except for those in a specific stage, would lapse. Prorogation merely pauses the parliamentary proceedings and does not affect the continuity of the legislative business.
Which of the following best describes the concept of Constitutionalism?
government derives its authority from a body of fundamental law and is limited by it. Constitutionalism is a concept that means the government derives its authority from a fundamental body of law and is legally limited in its powers by the same.
Consider the following statements regarding the work of sea waves:- 1. Sea waves continuously hit the rocks and create cracks, these cracks become wider and bigger with time and form coastal arches.
2. Due to sea caves becoming bigger with time, only the roof remains in them, which is called sea caves.
3. Due to continuous erosion by sea waves, the roofs of the sea arches also break and only the walls remain, which are called sea cliff.
How many of the above statements are true?
(Class 7, Ch 3, page 16,) Erosion and deposition of sea waves create coastal landforms. Sea waves continuously hit the rocks, due to which cracks develop. With time they become larger and wider. These are called sea caves. As these caves grow larger, only the roof remains, forming sea arches. Continuous erosion breaks down even the roof and only the walls remain. These wall-like shapes are called stacks.
Consider the following statements regarding sugarcane crop:
1. Sugarcane is a tropical and sub-tropical crop.
2. Brazil is the second largest producer of sugarcane in the world.
Which of the above statements is/are false?
Sugarcane is a tropical and sub-tropical crop. This crop grows at a temperature of 21º Celsius to 27º Celsius and a height of 75 cm. to 100 cm. Sown in hot and humid climates with annual rainfall. Irrigation is required in areas with less rainfall. It can be grown in many soils and requires a lot of physical labor from sowing to harvesting. India is the second largest producer of sugarcane after Brazil. It is used in making sugar, jaggery, khandsari and molasses. Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Bihar, Punjab and Haryana are the main sugarcane producing states.
Consider the following statements:- 1. Cockroach and crow are omnivorous animals.
2. Natural Interconnection of Food Chains is called Food Web.
3. Location of organisms based on source of nutrition, Is called trophic level. Select the false statement-
Some organisms in the detritus food chain become prey to grazing food chain animals and in a natural ecosystem, some animals like cockroaches and crows etc. are omnivores. This natural interconnection of food chains forms a food web. All organisms have a place in a natural environment or a community with other organisms according to food supply relationships. All organisms, depending on their source of nutrition or food, occupy a particular place in the food chain, which is known as trophic level.
The factors affecting the temperature distribution of ocean water are:- 1. latitude
2. Tide and ebb
3. Longitude
4. Unequal distribution of land and water
5. Ocean currents Code :-
Greenland and interior parts of Antarctica. Even in summer the temperature remains below freezing The factors affecting the temperature distribution of ocean water are- (i) Latitude - Due to the decrease in the amount of point. There is little rainfall in this area. Frost and snow keep accumulating and the increasing pressure deforms the snow layers. These pieces of solar radiation entering towards the poles, the temperature of the surface water of the oceans decreases from the equator towards the poles. (ii) Uneven distribution of land and water - The ice sheets slip into the Arctic and Antarctic waters and start floating in the form of floating ice sheets. The same climate is found at "Plateau Station" in oceans of the Northern Hemisphere receive more heat due to being connected to a larger part of the land than the oceans of the Southern Hemisphere. (iii) Perpetual winds- Winds blowing from the the Antarctic at 79° south latitude.
The correct sequence of the following seas from west to east is :
The correct sequence of seas from west to east is : Mediterranean Sea: It is the largest sea encircled by land. It is surrounded by Africa in South, Europe in the north and Asia in the east. Black Sea: It is a continental sea surrounded by South-east Europe, Caucasus and Anatolia Peninsula. Caspian Sea: It is the largest salt water lake. River Volga merges in the Caspian Sea. This sea is surrounded by Kazakhstan, Russia, Azerbaijan, Turkmenistan and Iran. Aral Sea: It is located in central Asia and is surrounded by Kazakhstan and Uzbekistan.
Consider the statement- 1. The third order from the top in the soil profile is “weathered rock material”.
2. The most effective way to prevent landslides is “construction of retaining walls”. Correct statement is
[SOL] C11/Ch7/P172 In China, in 1958, an attempt was made to rapidly industrialize the country through the policy of the Long Leap Movement. People were encouraged to install steel furnaces in their backyards. People's communes were started in rural areas where people owned land together and grew crops together. By 1958 there were 26,000 such communities, which constituted.
Which one of the following pair is not correctly matched? Area Important Resources
Forest resources are not available in the Kutch region. This region has abundant water resources. All other options are correctly matched.
This type of soil is found in the northern part of Bihar up to the south of Someshwar range and extends as a narrow strip from West Champaran to Kishanganj and Araria districts. The soil is brown to yellow in colour. It has abundant moisture and is fertile soil. Which of the following soil type has been described in the above phrase?
- Piedmont Swamp Soil is found in the north- western parts of West Champaran. Rocks and pebbles are predominant in the soil.
- Due to the predominance of forests, the soil is brownish and acidic in nature. It is rich in organic matter.
- The Terai soil is found along the Nepal-Bihar border. It ranges in color from dark brown to black.
- Terai soil is sandy and loamy in texture and region has a great capacity for holding water.
- In Bihar Terai soil is found in a narrow strip from West Champaran to Kishanganj and Araria districts.
- The lowland terai soil is more fertile than upland terai. This soil is deposited by the numerous rivers originating from the Himalayas and is primarily alluvial in nature.
- Khadar is a newer alluvium and is deposited by the rivers every year. It is sandy in the upper reaches and silty in the lower reaches.
- Due to a better drainage system, newer alluvial soil contains a low percentage of humus and nitrogen.
- Tal Soil is situated in the backwaters of the Ganga and extends from Buxar to Banka.
- The area remains waterlogged for months due to rain water and poor drainage. Tal soil varies in colour from light grey to dark grey and in texture from medium to heavy soil.
A commercial deal christened “Peace Pipeline” has been signed recently in the fi rst half of 2009. Identify the pipeline from the following list :
Iran–Pakistan gas pipeline is also known as the 'Peace Pipeline' or IP gas pipeline.
A new flowering plant species Curcuma Kakchingense was discovered in which of the following states of India?
- Curcuma Kakchingense:.
- It is a new flowering plant species discovered in Manipur. It was found dwelling along the bank of the Sekmai River of Kakching district.
- Its conservation status remains Data Deficient under the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List category.
- It is a member of the angiospermic family Zingiberaceae, which includes other plants like Curcuma (turmeric), gingers, and cardamom.
- It is an eight feet tall plant.
- The essential oil of curcuma species possesses a wide variety of pharmacological properties.
Kopili is a tributary river of :
Kapili river is a tributary of Brahmaputra. Kamrupnagar is situated on the bank of this river.
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
Anaimudi (2695 meters) is the highest peak of southern India as well as in the Western Ghats in India, located in southern region. Hence, statement (b) is correct. Tapti river lies to the south of Satpura. Hence, Statement (c) is correct. The Rift valley is a linear-shaped lowland between several highlands or mountain ranges created by the action of a geologic rift or fault. Hence Narmada, Damodar & Tapti rivers are examples of Indian rift valley. Hence, statement (d) is also correct. Statement (a) is wrong because southern part of Western Ghats is relatively high.
Which one of the following is the largest producer of Iron ore in the world ?
China was the largest producer of Iron Ore in the world during the question period. 4. The fi rst position in the production of Iron ore is of – (a) Phillippines (b) America (c) Russia (d) India U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1991 Ans. (d) The largest producers of Iron Ore are Australia, China, Brazil, and India respectively. As they are not given in the options, so India is the correct answer. 5. The fi rst three leading producers of iron ore in the world are: (a) Australia, China, U.S.A. (b) China, Russia, Australia (c) Russia, U.S.A., China (d) U.S.A., Russia, U.K. U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1997 Ans. (b) When the question was asked option (b) was correct. According to World Mineral Production 2015-19, in the year 2019, the top 3 leading producer of Iron ore in the world are Australia, China and Brazil.
Which of the following is known as ‘the Continent of Birds’?
40% of approximately 9000 species of birds worldwide are found in the South American continent. That is why the South America is often called a 'Continent of Birds'.
Kariba dam has been built on the river:
Kariba dam, one of the largest dams of the world, is located on Zambezi River on Zambia-Zimbabwe border.
Which States in India are the largest producers of sugarcane?
According to data of the year 2020-21, 4 largest sugarcane producing states are – Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Bihar. Thus, option (a) is correct.
With reference to the Competition Commission of India (CCI), which of the following statements are correct?
1. The primary objective of the CCI is promoting and sustaining competition in the Indian market.
2. The CCI consists of representatives from various industry bodies.
3. It has the authority to conduct investigations and gather evidence of market manipulation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The primary objective of the Competition Commission of India.
Which of these are published by NITI Aayog?
1. LEADS 2. National MPI 3. Unemployment rate
4. National sample survey Choose the correct option:
NITI Aayog publishes the LEADS (Logistics Ease Across Different States) index and the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI). The Unemployment Rate and the data from the National Sample Survey are published by the National Statistical Office (NSO), which is part of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), not by NITI Aayog.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): India's National Monetisation Pipeline (NMP) is expected to strengthen fiscal consolidation E\ reducing the fiscal deficit without cutting FDSLWDO expenditure. Reason (R): Proceeds from asset monetisation are treated as capital receipts allowing them to be used for financing infrastructure creation rather than revenue expenditure. Options:
The National Monetisation Pipeline (NMP), developed in 2021 by NITI Aayog, is a four-year roadmap (FY 2022–2025) with an estimated potential of ൟ6 lakh crore aimed at unlocking value from operational brownfield public assets. By leasing rights to assets such as roads (27%), railways (25%), and power (14%) to private operators while retaining government ownership, the program creates a cycle of "Asset Recycling." This generates non-debt capital receipts that are reinvested into the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP), allowing the government to maintain high capital expenditure and fund new greenfield projects without increasing the fiscal deficit or relying on further borrowing. Assertion A isTrue: The NMP is a critical tool for fiscal FRQVROLGDWLRQ. Fiscal consolidation refers to policies aimed at reducing government deficits and debt. By generating revenue from existing assets, the government can fund the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) without relying solely on increased borrowing or taxation. This allows the government to maintain high Capital Expenditure (CapEx)—which has a high multiplier effect on the economy²while keeping the fiscal deficit under control. Reason (R) is True: In government accounting, proceeds from asset monetisation are classified as Capital Receipts. Unlike revenue receipts (like taxes), capital receipts are typically used to create long-term assets or reduce liabilities. By channelling these funds specifically into greenfield infrastructure, the government ensures that "locked" capital is recycled back into the economy as productive infrastructure rather than being consumed by Revenue Expenditure (like salaries, subsidies, or interest payments). Tarkash Annual PYQ Plus BPSC Concept Wallah.
The grants-in-aid given by the Central Government to the State Government and local bodies for creation of capital assets are Indian Economy 640 classified in the Union Budget under
Revenue Budget consists of the revenue receipts of Government (tax revenues and other revenues) and the expenditure met from these revenues., Revenue expenditure is for the normal running of Government departments and various services, interest payments on debt, subsidies, etc. Broadly the expenditure which does not result in the creation of assets for the Government of India is treated as revenue expenditure. All grants given to State Governments/Union Territories and other parties are also treated as revenue expenditure even though some of the grants may be used for the creation of assets.
The first National Kisan Credit Card Conference was organised by the Ministry of fisheries, animal husbandry and dairy in which of the following cities?
- The Kisan Credit Card Scheme was introduced in 1998 with the objective of providing adequate and timely credit to the farmers for their agricultural operations. The Government of India provides interest subvention of 2% and Prompt Repayment Incentive of 3% to the farmers, thus making the credit available at a very subsidised rate of 4% per annum.
- The first National Kisan Credit Card Conference was organised by the ministry of fisheries, animal husbandry and dairy in Mumbai. It was organised to resolve pressing ground issues.
With whom has 'Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority' signed an agreement to increase awareness?
'Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority' (IEPFA) has entered into an agreement with DBS Bank to spread awareness on investment and fraudulent schemes. As per.
Which of the following States of India Received the highest Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) equity flow during April to September 2022? Indian Economy 629
India has recorded the highest-ever annual FDI inflow of USD 83.57 billion in the Financial Year 2021-22. Karnataka topped the FDI list for the year 2021-22 attracting Rs 1,62,830 crore, followed by Maharashtra at Rs 1,14,964 crore. Top FDI equity inflows came from Singapore (27%) followed by the U.S.A (18%). Computer Software and Hardware becomes the top recipient sector of FDI Equity inflow with a share of around 25% BCW Bits: A Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is an investment made by a firm or individual in o n e country into business interests located in another country. FDI lets an investor purchase a direct business interest in a foreign country. Some common modes of FDI include establishing a subsidiary in another country, acquiring or merging with an existing foreign company, or starting a joint venture partnership with a foreign company. Eg: - Recently Reliance Jio attracted FDI worth USD 10.2 billion led by Facebook. The collaboration of Maruti-Suzuki is an excellent example of FDI in the automobile sector.
What does the Preston Curve illustrate in economic terms?
The Preston Curve illustrates the relationship between a country's per capita income and its life expectancy. It shows how life expectancy increases with income but at a diminishing rate as income rises.
Which city did Krishnadeva Raya establish in the name of his mother?
[SOL] C12/Ch7/P173 The Arab Muslim traders who settled along the Malabar Coast (Kerala) not only adopted the local Malayalam language but also local customs such as matriarchy and matriarchy. The credit for building some of the finest temples and adding grand gopurams to many important South Indian temples goes to Krishnadeva. He also established a suburb named Nagalapuram near Vijayanagara in the name of his mother.
Who was the first to demand Swaraj?
(Class 8/Chapter 8/page - 94) By the 1890s, many people had begun to question the political methods of the Congress. In Bengal and Punjab and Maharashtra, leaders like Vipin Chandra Pal, Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Lala Lajpat Rai started working with more radical goals and methods. He criticized the moderates for their politics of submission and stressed the importance of self-reliance and constructive work. He said that people should rely not on the good intentions of the government but on their own strength – people should fight for Swaraj. Tilak gave the slogan that freedom is my birthright and I will have it.
Which of the following organisations provides a guarantee to exporters in India?
Export loan guarantee corporation provides a guarantee to exporters in India. ECGC Ltd. (Formerly known as Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India Ltd.) wholly owned by the Government of India, was set up in 1957 with the objective of promoting exports from the country Indian Economy.
The concept of ‘Navratna’ is associated with:
The ‘Navratna’ designation is associated with selected Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) in India. Introduced by the Government of India in 1997, this status was initially granted to nine CPSEs to give them greater autonomy and power to compete in the global market. Currently, the government classifies CPSEs into three categories: Miniratna, Navratna, and Maharatna, based on various performance factors.
Consider the following pairs:
1. JN.1 : Mobile Application by Jute Corporation of India.
2. Paat Mitro : GI tag product of West Bengal.
3. Watsonx.ai: A humanoid robot.
4. CAPSTONE: New COVID strain.
Which of the above mentioned pairs is/are incorrectly matched ?
- A new strain of Covid-19, named JN.1, has been detected in Kerala. It is a sub-variant of Sublineage BA.2.86 known as Pirola, is an off-shoot of the widely circulating Omicron variant.
- Paat Mitro is a mobile application developed by the Jute Corporation of India Limited for the purpose to provide important information about Minimum Support Prices (MSP) and agronomy to jute farmers.
- Watsonx.ai is a joint AI tool by NASA and International Business Machines Corporation. It will help users monitor the Earth from space, measure environmental changes that have already occurred, as well as make predictions about the future.
- CAPSTONE (Cislunar Autonomous Positioning System Technology Operations and Navigation Experiment), a cubesat satellite launched by NASA. It has been designed to test a unique, elliptical lunar orbit.
Consider the following statements concerning geothermal energy:
1. Geothermal energy is considered renewable due to the ongoing heat generation within the Earth.
2. The inaugural geothermal energy project in India is situated in the Puga Valley of Ladakh. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Statement 1 is correct: Geothermal energy is sustained by the Earth's continuous heat production, making it renewable.
- Statement 2 is correct: The initial geothermal energy initiative in India is located in Ladakh's Puga Valley.
Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): Nuclear energy is a promising source of futuristic demand for energy supply in India. Reason (R) : Nuclear minerals are ubiquitously available in India. Select correct answer by using codes given below:
Nuclear energy is a promising source of future demand for energy supply in India. India has large reserves of beach sand minerals such as ilmenite, rutile, zircon, monazite, sillimanite and garnet. The fi rst four being categorized as a prescribed substance for use in the production of atomic energy and related research and development activities. These reserves are mostly located in the coastal stretches of peninsular India with exception of few inland deposits but nuclear minerals are not presently available in India. According to National Power Portal data as on 28 February, 2022 total nuclear power capacity was 6780 MW i.e. 1.7% of the total established Power capacity.
Consider the following statements with respect to the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA):
1. Ongoing border disputes with neighboring countries can make a state or central government declare an area a 'disturbed area', enabling the implementation of AFSPA.
2. AFSPA grants power to armed forces to use force, even to the extent of causing death, for maintaining public order. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) is typically invoked in response to internal civil unrest, breakdown of law and order, or insurgency within India. It is not primarily associated with border disputes with neighboring countries. Statement 2 is correct. AFSPA grants power to the armed forces to use force, even to the extent of causing death, for maintaining public order in 'disturbed areas' as declared by the state or central government. However, this power is subject to certain provisions and conditions specified in the act.
Refractory period in a neuron is the period of complete inexcitability between
In neurobiology, the Refractory Period serves as a vital reset mechanism. It ensures that nerve impulses (action potentials) travel in only one direction and prevents the neuron from becoming overstimulated. How the Neuron Locks Down? The state of "complete inexcitability" mentioned in the question refers to the Absolute Refractory Period. This occurs due to the specific behavior of voltage- gated ion channels: The Surge (Depolarization): Voltage-gated sodium (Na+) channels open rapidly, allowing positive ions to Àood the cell. At this stage, the channels are already "busy, " so a second stimulus cannot open them further. The Shutdown (Early Repolarization): Once the peak of the action potential is reached, the sodium channels enter an inactivated state (locked). They cannot be reopened until the membrane potential returns to a near-resting level. The Biological Limit: Because the Na+ channels are either already open or physically locked, the neuron is completely incapable of firing another impulse, regardless of how strong the next stimulus is. The period of absolute or "complete" inexcitability occurs precisely between the start of depolarization and the transition through repolarization. This timing is fundamental for maintaining the rhythmic and directional Àow of signals in the nervous system.
What is the expanded form of the term ‘mRNA’ that has been widely discussed since the beginning of the pandemic?
mRNA stands for messenger Ribonucleic Acid and is the single stranded molecule that carries the instructions to make proteins. It is a type of single-stranded RNA, involved in protein synthesis. mRNA is made from a DNA template during the process of transcription. (The process of making mRNA from DNA is called transcription, and it occurs in the nucleus). The role of mRNA is to carry protein information from the DNA in a cell’s nucleus to the cell’s cytoplasm (watery interior), where the protein-making machinery reads the mRNA sequence and translates these into its amino acid, in a growing protein chain. mRNA vaccines work by introducing a piece of mRNA that corresponds to a viral protein, usually a small piece of a protein found on the virus’s outer membrane. (Individuals who get an mRNA vaccine are not exposed to the virus, nor can they become infected with the virus by the vaccine.) By using this mRNA, cells can produce the viral protein. As part of a normal immune response, the immune system recognizes that the protein is foreign body and produces specialized proteins called antibodies. In simple words, an mRNA vaccine works by triggering your immune system to create antibodies. Antibodies are proteins in the body. Examples of mRNA vaccines include Pfizer and Moderna vaccines.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding specific gravity ?
lanation:- Specific gravity is a dimensionless quantity that compares the density of a substance to the density of water at a specific temperature. Since it’s a ratio of two densities, it has no units.
When a soap film on the water is seen in the daytime, it shows beautiful colours. This phenomenon is due to
The beautiful colours seen on the soap film are due to interference patterns, created when light reflects off the two surfaces of the thin soap film. Interference patterns are created when two reflected waves line up in phase or out of phase. Refraction of light caused by the earth’s atmosphere due to varying optical densities of different layers of the earth’s atmosphere is called atmospheric refraction. Some examples of atmospheric refraction are: An immersed rod in water seems small and bent at the surface when it is observed from outside. A coin within a pot with water seems above from its original position. Twinkling of stars - The stars twinkle in the night sky because of the effects of atmospheric refraction. When starlight enters the atmosphere it is affected by winds in the atmosphere and by the regions with different temperatures and densities, therefore light rays bent (refracted) many times in random directions. Advance sunrise and delay in the sunset. The Rainbow (formed due to refraction, reflection, and dispersion.) The apparent position of the stars. BCW Bits : Critical angle (θc) is the angle of incidence beyond which rays of light passing through a denser medium to the surface of a less dense medium are no longer refracted but totally reflected. Its value depends upon the nature of both mediums and color of rays. For critical angle light must pass from a denser medium to rarer medium. The complete reflection of light ray reaching an interface with a less dense medium when the angle of incidence exceeds the critical angle is known as total internal reflection. Total internal reflection takes place only when a ray of light is travelling from denser to rarer medium and angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle, the ray is completely reflected from the surface. Looming in cold regions and Mirages in arid regions occur due to the optical illusions caused by the Total Internal reflection of light. Optical fibres, Endoscope function and sparkling of diamond works on the principle of total internal reflection.
What does CAR-T stand for in the context of the recently approved Indigenous CAR-T cell therapy by the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSO)?
In a groundbreaking development, India has become one of the first developing nations to establish its own CAR-T and gene therapy platform. The Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSO) has recently approved NexCar19, an indigenous Chimeric Antigen Receptor T cell (CAR-T cell) therapy, for the treatment of lymphoma and leukemia (blood cancer). This revolutionary therapy, developed by ImmunoACT, a company incubated at IIT Bombay, signifies a major stride in India’s healthcare and biotechnology sectors.
Which of the following is not an antibiotic?
(i) Streptomycin
(ii) Tetracycline
(iii) Erythromycin Code:
Mode Pathoge of Preventive Human nic trans measures disease microor missio (general) ganisms n Tubercul Keeping the sick person completely isolated from other people. Keeping the patient's personal belongings separate. Vaccination at appropriate time. Bacteria Air osis disease Air air/stra Measles (Measles) Virus ight Chicken Virus Contact pox.
The unit of potential difference is
Charge: It can be defined as the fundamental property of a body which enables it to attract or repel other bodies and due to which it experiences a force when placed in an electric or magnetic field. A body can be positively (less no. of electrons) or negatively (more no. of electrons) charged. An American scientist Benjamin Franklin is credited to give the name of the charge as positive or negative. Opposite charges neutralize each other’s effect. Like charges repel each other and Unlike charges attract each other. Charges on a body can be developed by direct contact or by the method of induction. When we rub an object such as straw or a piece of paper it gets charged this is an example of charging by contact and if we bring a positively charged rod near a metal surface, the electrons will get accumulated on the surface of a metal (as unlike charges attract each other) making it a negatively charged entity. This is called charging by induction. If the size of the charged bodies is very small in comparison to the distance between the two, then those charged bodies will be called point charges. Charge is a scalar quantity and is additive in nature. Charges cannot be created or destroyed; it is conserved for an isolated system. Charges are quantized i.e, q=ne, where ‘n’ is an integer and ‘e’ is the basic unit.
Which of the following is an essential amino acid that must be obtained through the diet?
lanation:- Essential amino acids are those that cannot be synthesized by the human body and must be obtained through the diet. Lysine is one of the essential amino acids, meaning it is necessary for protein synthesis and must be ingested through food sources such as meat, dairy products, eggs, and legumes. On the other hand, Glycine, Alanine, and Glutamine are non-essential amino acids, meaning the body can synthesize them on its own and they do not need to be obtained exclusively through the diet.
Which of the following hormones converts excess glucose into glycogen?
During digestion, foods that contain carbohydrates are converted into glucose. Most of this glucose is sent into the bloodstream, causing a rise in blood glucose levels, which signals the pancreas to produce insulin. Insulin tells cells throughout the body to take in glucose from the bloodstream. As the glucose moves into the cells, the blood glucose levels go down. Some cells use glucose as energy. Other cells, such as the liver and muscles, store any excess glucose as a substance called glycogen, which is used for fuel between meals. Glucagon works to counterbalance the actions of insulin. About 4–6 hours after you eat, the glucose levels in your blood Biology.
Water and ammonia molecules contain
The chemical structure, hybridisation, and bond angles of molecules are determined by the number of bonding pairs and lone pairs of electrons around the central atom, according to the VSEPR (Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion) theory. Water (HၷO) and ammonia (NHၸ) both exhibit sp% hybridisation because their central atoms possess a steric number of 4, meaning that the total number of bonded atoms and lone pairs surrounding the central atom is four. This arrangement corresponds to an ideal tetrahedral electron-pair geometry with a bond angle of 109.5°. Water (HၷO):.
The average blood flow through kidneys per minute is
The average blood flow through kidneys per minute is 1200c. The Kidney is the part of the Excretory System. The Kidneys are found in pairs (2 kidneys in each human body) and in bean shape. The nephron is the structural and functional unit of the kidney. It converts a precursor of vitamin D to its active form, calcitriol; and synthesizes the hormones erythropoietin and renin. The kidney is attached to a ureter, a tube that carries excreted urine to the bladder. It excretes a variety of waste products produced by metabolism into the urine (the colour of urine is yellow due to the presence of Urochrome and the foul smell is due to Ammonia). Note: The kidney is present in the Dorsal abdomen and weighs around (120-170) gm. Urine = 95% water + 2.8% dissolved salt + 2% urea + 0.2% uric acid, creatinine, etc Human body secretes around 1.5liter of urine per day. The pH of urine is around 6.0.
Which of the following is a function of plastids in plant cells ?
Plastids are organelles found in plant cells and some protists. They are responsible for essential functions such as photosynthesis, storage of pigments, and synthesis of essential molecules. Chloroplasts, a type of plastid, contain chlorophyll and are involved in photosynthesis, the process by which plants convert light energy into chemical energy. Other types of plastids, such as chromoplasts and leucoplasts, store pigments and other important substances.
In which of the following pairs of administrative Divisions of Bihar, the Ganga river does not flow?
There are 9 administrative divisions of Bihar. Ganga enters Patna division through Chausa, Buxar. It crosses 12 districts and exits Bihar through the Bhagalpur division. The names of the 9 divisions are Tirhut, Patna, Saran, Darbhanga, Kosi, Purnea, Bhagalpur, Munger, and Magadh. Out of these, Ganga passes through Patna, Saran, Tirhut, Darbhanga, Munger, Purnea a n d Bhagalpur i.e. 7 divisions. It is the Kosi and Magadh division where Ganga does not enter. The smallest division of Bihar is the “Bhagalpur division” with only two districts.
Gold deposits are found in the Jamui district.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Bihar Special 361
Bihar has more than 90% of India’s Pyrites deposits. Rohtas have the highest deposits of Pyrites. Amjhor and Pattharghatta areas of Rohtas are famous for Pyrites deposits. Limestone is found in Kaimur, Munger and Rohtas districts. Gold deposits in Bihar are found in Jamui. BCW Bits : Minerals Districts Pyrites Rohtas (Aamjhor and Pattharghata Area) Limestone and Sandstone Kaimur, Rohtas,Munger Mica Gaya, Nawada Coal Bhagalpur Kahalgaon and Mandar Block Bauxite Rohtas, Munger Uranium Gaya Industries Districts Industries Districts Mokama (Patna) Oil refinery Baruani (Begusarai) Bharat Wagon & Engineering Fertiliser Baruani (Begusarai) Cement Dalminagar (Rohtas) Electric Locomotive Factory Madhepura Rail Wheel Plant Saran Jute Katihar Bihar state Scooter limited Silk Bhagalpur Plywood Hajipur.
After Dariya Khan Nuhani who became the administrator of Bihar?
Sikandar Lodi defeated Shah Shargi and appointed Dariya Khan Noohani as the administrator of Bihar, a position he held until his death in 1523. Following his father’s death, his son Bahar Khan Noohani succeeded him as the administrator. In 1523, Bahar Khan Noohani ascended to the throne.
Yousuf Shah Chak, the last Muslim ruler of Kashmir valley, who was exiled to Bihar by the Mughal emperor Akbar, was buried in
Yousuf Shah Chak was a ruler of Kashmir. He was the successor of his father Ali Shah Chak and ruled Kashmir from 1579 to 1586 AD. Chaks originally were Dards residents of the Gilgit Huza area. They successfully resisted the attempts of Babur and Humayun to annex Kashmir. Yousuf Shah Chak was the last independent Muslim ruler of the Kashmir valley. Yousuf Shah Chak sought refuge in Sialkot before he was brought to Delhi for talks with Akbar. Akbar's forces betrayed Yousuf and imprisoned him for the rest of his life. Yousuf was exiled to Bengal and later shifted to Bihar where he died. His grave remains in Bihar (the Tomb of Yousuf Shah lies in ruins at Nalanda and his tomb is in disrepair and unprotected)
Recently, which institute of Bihar in collaboration with scientists from Germany have discovered a new 2D metallic material ‘Molybdenene’?
Recently, the Indian Institute of Technology Patna (IIT-Patna) in collaboration with scientists from German research institution — Forschungszentrum Jülich — have discovered a new 2D metallic material ‘Molybdenene’. As a cantilever for atomic force microscopy (AFM), it is perfectly suited due to its stability and exceptional electrical and thermal conductivity.
During whose reign was the image of the four- faced Mahadev installed in Bodhgaya?
lanation:- Dharampala was the Pala ruler during whose reign the image of four-faced Mahadev was installed in Bodhgaya.
Which agro-climatic region of Bihar has the highest number of districts?
Based on soil characterization, rainfall, temperature and terrain, four main agro-climatic zones in Bihar have been identified. Zone - I: North West Alluvial Plain; which consists of 13 districts. Zone - II: North East Alluvial Plain; which consists of 8 districts. Zone - III A: South East Alluvial Plain; which consists of 6 districts. Zone - III B: South West Alluvial Plain; which consists of 11 districts. So from the above description, it is clear that the Northern west agro-climatic region of Bihar has the highest number of districts.
Which one of the following parts of Bihar is relatively oldest from the geological point of view?
The oldest rocks of Bihar are the Dharwad series rocks which are spread in the southern border districts of Bihar. Kharagpur rocks are located in Munger which is a part of the Dharwad series rocks. Mainly four types of rocks are found in Bihar: - Dharwad series rocks, Vindhya series rocks, Tertiary rocks and Quaternary rocks.
Gold is found in which district of Bihar?
As per Media reports, in India, the largest reserves of gold ore (primary) are located in Bihar (44%) followed by Rajasthan (25%), Karnataka (21%), West Bengal (3%), Andhra Pradesh (3%), Jharkhand (2%). The remaining 2% resources of ore are located in Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Kerala, Maharashtra, and Tamil Nadu. The presence of gold in areas such as Karmatia, Jhajha, and Sono in the Jamui district, was confirmed by the Geological Survey of India.
Recently, where was the ‘7th Rashtriya Poshan Maah’ launched?
The 7th Rashtriya Poshan Maah began from 1 September at Mahatma Mandir in Gandhinagar, Gujarat, focusing on nutrition awareness and well- being. Union Minister Annpurna Devi, Gujarat’s Chief Minister Bhupendrabhai Patel, and other officials attended the event. The day started with a nationwide tree-planting drive called “Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam,” promoting nutrition and environmental sustainability.
Which ancient site is the UNESCO World Heritage Site present in the Bihar state of India?
Bihar is home to two UNESCO World Heritage Sites: the Mahabodhi Temple Complex in Bodh Gaya (inscribed in 2002) and the Archaeological Site of Nalanda Mahavihara (inscribed in 2016). Mahabodhi Vihar is the holiest Buddhist site, marking the location where Siddhartha Gautama attained enlightenment. Tomb of Sher Shah Suri: A magnificent Indo-Islamic mausoleum in Sasaram. While a National Monument, it is not a UNESCO World Heritage site. Ancient site of Vikramshila Monastery: An 8th-century Buddhist university founded by King Dharmapala. It is an important archaeological site, but not UNESCO- designated. Kumhrar, Patna: Contains the archaeological remains of the ancient Mauryan capital, Pataliputra, including an 80-pillared hall. It is a major historical site but lacks UNESCO status.
Which is the main river system of Bihar?
The state of Bihar is primarily drained by rivers that are part of the Ganga River system. The Ghagra River is one of the major tributaries of the Ganga and Àows through parts of Bihar, contributing to its drainage system.
He was the founder of the Pala dynasty.
2. He founded Vikramshila University which became second only to Nalanda in fame.
3. He was involved in a conflict with the Pratihara king Vatsaraja due to the claim over the Kannauj region.
Which of the statements given above are incorrect?
- The Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, today approved setting up a Major Port at Vadhavan near Dahanu in Maharastra. The Project will be constructed by Vadhavan Port Project Limited (VPPL), an SPV formed by Jawaharlal Nehru Port Authority (JNPA) and Maharashtra Maritime Board (MMB) with a shareholding of 74% and 26%, respectively. The Vadhavan Port will be developed as an all-weather Greenfield deep draft major port in Vadhavan, Palghar District, Maharashtra.
- The total project cost, including the land acquisition component is Rs.76,220 Crore. This will include development of Core infrastructure, Terminals and other commercial infrastructure in public-private partnerships (PPP) mode. The cabinet also approved establishing the road connectivity between the Port and National Highways by Ministry of Road Transport & Highways and rail linkage to the existing rail network and the upcoming Dedicated Rail Freight Corridor by Ministry of Railways.
- The capacities created will also aid EXIM trade flow through IMEEC (India Middle East Europe Economic Corridor) and INSTC (International North South Transportation Corridor)
Which one of the following pair is correctly matched? Area Main Economic Activity
Bihar is one of the leading producers of Sugar. The sugar industry is more centralised in North Bihar. Districts of north Bihar, Saran, Champaran, Muzaff arpur, Darbhanga, etc. are famous for the sugar industry. Other options are not correctly matched.
The Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha was founded by:
The Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha was founded by Swami Sahajanand Saraswati in 1929. Swami Sahajanand Saraswati is regarded as one of the most important peasant leaders of India. He organized farmers against zamindari exploitation, high rents, illegal taxes, and oppression by landlords. The Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha became an important platform for mobilizing peasants and raising agrarian issues in Bihar. The movement later inÀuenced the formation of the All India Kisan Sabha in 1936, which became a major peasant organization at the national level. Swami Sahajanand believed that political freedom alone was not enough unless farmers and rural poor also received economic justice. Jayaprakash Narayan is an extremely important personality in modern Indian history. Initially associated with the Congress Socialist Party, he later became famous for leading the “Total Revolution” movement against corruption and authoritarianism during the 1970s. He also played a major role against the Emergency imposed in.
What is the total financial support extended by the NABARD to Bihar in the financial year 2023- 24?
NABARD extends financial support of Rs 10,372 crore in Bihar during FY 2023– 24. NABARD provided Rs 10372.86 crore to Bihar in 2023-24, showing a 21% growth. The support covered various sectors like FPOs, Watershed Development, and skill programs, benefitting 43,000 hectares, 169 FPOs, and 106 skill programs.
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GS Mock Test IX | 100 MCQs with Explanations
Prepared by Brajesh Mohan (GS Sandhan)
Focused Preparation for BPSC & Bihar Competitive Examinations
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