GS Mock Test III for BPSC & Bihar Exams: 100 MCQs with Answers & Explanations
Practice 100 General Studies MCQs with click-to-reveal answers and detailed explanations for BPSC CCE, BPSC TRE, Bihar SSC and Bihar Daroga exams. Covers History, Indian Polity, Geography, Economics, General Science and Bihar Special GK.
Subjects covered
- Indian History
- Indian Polity & Constitution
- Geography
- Indian Economy
- General Science
- Bihar History & Geography
- Bihar Economy, Polity & Culture
- Bihar Special GK
- Important General Studies Facts
Ideal for: BPSC CCE, BPSC TRE, Bihar SSC, Bihar Police / Bihar Daroga and other Bihar competitive examinations.
About this mock test
Test and improve your General Studies preparation with this comprehensive 100-question GS Mock Test designed for BPSC CCE, BPSC TRE, Bihar SSC, Bihar Daroga and other Bihar government examinations. The test covers the most important areas of General Studies, including Ancient, Medieval and Modern Indian History, Indian Polity, Geography, Indian Economy, General Science and Bihar Special GK.
Each question is followed by a click-to-reveal answer and explanation, allowing you to attempt the question independently before checking the correct answer. The explanations are designed to help you understand the underlying concept rather than simply memorising the answer.
Use this mock test to assess your preparation, identify weak areas, revise important facts and improve accuracy and speed before the examination. The questions are structured around the type of factual, conceptual and analytical questions commonly encountered in competitive examinations.
Consider the following statements in the context of Jainism- 1. Mainly traders supported Jainism.
2. Most of the people of the peasant class did not accept Jainism.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
- She was devoted to Krishna and composed innumerable bhajans expressing her intense devotion.
- Her songs also openly challenged the norms of the “upper” castes and became popular with the masses in Rajasthan and Gujarat.
Consider the following statements and choose the correct option from the code:- 1. Buddha's religious thoughts and teachings have been collected in Suttapitaka.
2. Suttapitaka is a mixture of prose and poetry. It is di- vided into 7 Nikayas.
Which of the above is correctly matched?
Suttapitaka, the literal meaning of Sutta is - religious sermon. Buddha's religious thoughts and teachings have been collected in it. It is a mixture of prose and poetry. It is divided into five Nikayas:- 1. Digha Nikaya 2. Majjhima Nikaya 3. Samyutta Nikaya 4. Anguttara Nikaya 5. Khuddaka Nikaya.
'I am a water carrier: Even in the cold I have always gone down to the water frightened of punishment or the angry words of high class women. So what are you afraid of Brahmana, That makes you go down to the water (Though) your limbs shake with the bitter cold'? The Brahmana replied: I am doing good to prevent evil; anyone young or old who has done something bad is freed by washing in water. The above mentioned text has been taken from?
- The Therigatha is part of the Sutta Pitaka. It is a collection of verses composed by bhikkhunis. It provides an insight into women's social and spiritual experiences.
- Punna, a dasi or slave woman, went to the river each morning to fetch water for her master's household. There she would daily see a Brahmana performing bathing rituals. One morning she spoke to him.
- The above mentioned phrase is part of conversation between Punna and the Brahmin as mentioned in the Therigatha.
Ashoka appointed officers to go from place to place to educate the people. By which of the following names were these officers known?
Ashoka’s dhamma did not involve worship of a god, or performance of a sacrifice. He felt that just as a father tries to teach his children, he had a duty to instruct his subjects. He was also inspired by the teachings of the Buddha.
Which of the following was the chief Queen of Ashoka?
Asandhimitta was the chief queen of Ashoka. She is also known as Devi Asandhimitra and played a significant role in Ashoka’s life and reign. Her influence is believed to have contributed to Ashoka’s conversion to Buddhism and his subsequent efforts to promote peace and non-violence.
The Palas of Bengal and Bihar were patrons of:
The Pala dynasty was a major patron of Buddhism, especially Mahayana Buddhism. The Pala rulers ruled large parts of Bengal and Bihar between the 8th and 12th centuries CE. They played a major role in Preserving and promoting Buddhism at a time when it was declining in many other parts of India. Under their patronage, famous Buddhist centres like Nalanda, Vikramshila, and Odantapuri Àourished as important international centres of learning in Bihar. Dharmapala and Devapala were among the most important rulers of the dynasty. Dharmapala is especially remembered for founding Vikramshila University. Buddhist scholars from Tibet, Nepal, and Southeast Asia came to study in these institutions. The Palas are not mainly known for patronage of Vishnu worship, though Hindu practices continued among the population.
Who was the founder of Puhar(Kaveripattanam)?
The Chola king Karikala founded Puhar and constructed 160 km of the embankment along the Kaveri River. This was built with the labour of 12000 slaves from Sri Lanka. Puhar is a place identical to Kaveripattanam.
Who succeeded Pushyamitra shunga as a ruler of Magadh?
Pushyamitra Shunga was the founder of the Shunga dynasty, which ruled over parts of India after the decline of the Mauryan Empire. Upon his death, he was succeeded by his son, Agnimitra Shunga, who became the second ruler of the Shunga dynasty. Agnimitra is also known for being the protagonist of the famous Sanskrit play “Malavikagnimitram” by Kalidasa.
Identify the wrong statement related to the religious life of Mauryan ruler Ashoka.
- After adopting Buddhism, Ashoka stopped hunting and pilgrimages and started religious pilgrimages in their place. He went to the places sanctified by the feet of Mahatma Buddha and worshipped them. The sequence of his visits is as follows - Bodh Gaya, Kushinagar, Lumbini, Kapilavastu, Sarnath and Shravasti.
- When the remnants of karma are completely destroyed from the living being, then he attains salvation (Kaivalya). In Jainism, the rule of Kaivalya is only for the members of the Sangha, not for the common people. Common people or householders have to go through 11 categories before entering the life of a monk. Mahavir Swami got titles like Kevalin, Jin (victor), Arh (worthy), Nirgranth (free from bondage) only after attaining Kaivalya. Jainism believes in rebirth and Karma Vada. It rejects the apotheosis of the Vedas and the existence of God.
With reference to the Guhilots/Sisodiyas, Rathors and Kachwahas, consider the following statements:
1. The Guhilots ruled over Mewar with Chittor as their capital.
2. Sawai Jai Singh of the Rathor dynasty was a high- ranking noble in the Mughal court.
3. Man Singh of the Kachwahas was a trusted commander of Akbar.
4. Maharana Pratap of the Sisodiyas fought against Akbar at the Battle of Haldighati.
5. Jaswant Singh of the Kachwahas was also an astronomer.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Guhilots/Sisodiyas- The Guhilots (who later branched into the Sisodiyas) ruled the region of Mewar and made Chittor (Chittorgarh) their primary, long-term strategic capital. Rathors - Ruled Marwar (Jodhpur region), Kachwahas- Ruled Amber/Jaipur. These clans were important during the Mughal period; Kachwahas had a close alliance with the Mughals, especially under Akbar. Sawai Jai Singh II belonged to the Kachwaha dynasty (Amber/Jaipur), not the Rathors. He was a distinguished Mughal noble and renowned astronomer. Raja Man Singh, belonged to the Kachwaha clan of Amber and was one of Akbar’s Navratnas. He was a trusted general of Akbar and played a key role in Mughal expansion. Maharana Pratap was a Sisodiya ruler of Mewar who famously fought against Akbar's imperial army (led by Man Singh) at the Battle of Haldighati in 1576. Sisodiyas of Mewar are known for their resistance to Mughal rule Jaswant Singh belonged to the Rathor dynasty (Jodhpur), and it was Sawai Jai Singh II, the Kachwaha ruler of Jaipur, who was renowned for astronomy. BCW Bits Sawai Jai Singh II Due to his keen interest in astronomy, Sawai Jai Singh II built five astronomical observatories (Jantar Mantar) across India, between 1724 and 1730. He built Jantar Mantar at five locations ± Jaipur, Delhi, Ujjain, Varanasi and Mathura, of which the Jantar Mantar in Jaipur is the largest and is included in the UNESCO World Heritage Centre . In 1727, with the help of the architect Vidyadhar Bhattacharya from Bengal, he founded the city of Jaipur. Seeing his extraordinary qualities, Aurangzeb gave him the title of 'Sawai', which means one and a quarter times superior to his contemporaries. Under his supervision, a precise table of stars called 'Zij Mohammad Shahi' was prepared, and he himself composed an astrological treatise called 'Jaisimha Karika'.
With reference to the Vijayanagara Empire, consider the following statements.
1. The Vijayanagara Empire was founded by Harihara – I and Bukka - I.
2. Krishnadevaraya, the greatest ruler of the Tuluva dynasty, authored ‘Amuktamalyada’ in Telugu. Tarkash Annual PYQ Plus BPSC Concept Wallah 122 3. The city of Hampi, the capital of Vijayanagara, was sacked after the Battle of Talikota. How many of the statements given above are correct?
The Vijayanagara Empire was founded in 1336 CE by two brothers, Harihara I and Bukka Raya I. They were initially feudatories of the Kakatiyas or the Hoysalas and founded the Sangama dynasty. Krishnadevaraya (reigned 1509–1529 CE) was the most prominent ruler of the Tuluva dynasty. He was a great patron of literature and authored the epic poem ‘Amuktamalyada’ in Telugu, which is considered a masterpiece of the era. After the Battle of Talikota in 1565 CE, where the Vijayanagara empire was defeated by a coalition of the Deccan Sultanates, the capital city of Hampi was systematically sacked, looted, and destroyed.
Abdul Rahim Khan-i-Khana ² Finance Minister Which of the pairs given above are correct?
Faizi - A Persian poet and scholar, Translated Sanskrit works into Persian; Abul Fazl - Wrote Ain-i-Akbari and Akbarnama, Close advisor of Akbar; Raja Todar Mal - Known for revenue reforms (Zabt system), He was basically Finance Minister; Raja Man Singh I - One of Akbar’s top military commanders, Led campaigns for the empire; Tansen:- One of the greatest classical musicians, Associated with Dhrupad style; Abdul Rahim Khan-i-Khana:- Known for Hindi dohas and Persian works, A noble and scholar. BCW Bits: Abul Fazl helped shape Akbar’s idea of Sulh-i-Kul (universal tolerance) Faizi was Abul Fazl’s brother.
With reference to Delhi Sultanate, which of the following is incorrectly matched?
- Pair 1 is correct. Diwan -i- Rasalat deals with Foreign Affairs.
- Pair 2 is correct. Diwan - I - Wizarat deals with Finance Affairs.
- Pair 3 is incorrect. Diwan - I - Insha deals with Department of correspondence.
- Pair 4 is correct. Diwan - I - Barid deals with Intelligence department.
Khafi Khan referred to which Mughal ruler as "Shah-i- Bekhabar" due to his tendency to appease all parties with grants of titles and rewards?
Bahadur Shah I, also known as Shah Alam I, who ruled the Mughal Empire from 1707 to 1712. His reign was marked by efforts to maintain peace and stability within the empire by distributing titles and rewards to various factions, leading Khafi Khan to describe him as the "unaware king" or "Shah- i-Bekhabar," implying a lack of awareness or decisiveness.
Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri was
The Ibadat Khana, meaning the House of Worship, was a meeting house built in 1575 CE by the Mughal Emperor Akbar at Fatehpur Sikri to gather spiritual leaders of different religious grounds to conduct a discussion on the teachings of the respective religions. He invited mystics, intellectuals and theologians belonging to different religions such as Hinduism, Islam, Zoroastrianism, Medieval History.
Who was the commander of Rana Pratap’s army in the Battle of Haldighati?
The commander of Rana Pratap’s army in the Battle of Haldighati was Hakim Khan. The Battle of Haldighati was a battle fought on 18 June 1576 between the armies of the Rana of Mewar, Maharana Pratap, and the Mughal emperor Akbar.
Which among the following ports was called Babul Makka (Gate of Makka) during the Mughal period?
Surat was referred to as Bab-al-Makkah in Mughal times as it was a departure point for pilgrims traveling for Hajj. It is also known as the gateway of West Asia as Surat is one of the main hubs of goods and clothing traded via sea routes to other Asian countries.
What were the main reasons for the success of English over other European Imperialist powers in India?
1. Stable Government in Britain
2. Activities of Christian missionaries
3. Advanced Navy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- British government feared from directly interfering into the religious practices of India. Especially after the revolt of 1857, the British government abstained from interfering into local customs and beliefs. Therefore statement 2 is not correct.
- One of the main reasons for the success of English over other European in India was stable Government in Britain and a superior navy, disciplined army and advanced weapon and communication system.
Consider the following statements regarding the Dandi March.
1. This visit was given wide coverage by the European and American press.
2. This was the first nationalist activity in which women also participated enthusiastically. Select the false statement.
[SOL] C12/Ch11/P300 The Salt March was notable for at least three reasons. First, this was the incident due to which Mahatma Gandhi came into the notice of the world. The visit received extensive coverage in the European and American press. Secondly, this was the first nationalist activity in which women also participated enthusiastically. Socialist activist Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay explained to Gandhiji that he should not limit his movements to men only. Kamaladevi herself was one of the countless women who led mass arrests for violating salt or liquor laws. The third and probably the most important reason was that it was because of the Salt March that the British realized that their rule would not last long and they would have to give a share in power to the Indians too.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Wood’s dispatch?
1. It is considered as the Magna Carta of English Education in India.
2. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.
3. It recommended a system of grants-in-aid to encourage private enterprises.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Statement 1 is correct: Wood’s Dispatch, issued in 1854 is considered as the Magna Carta of English Education in India. It is a landmark document that significantly shaped the education system in colonial India. It placed a strong emphasis on English education, introducing a more structured and centralised approach. Statement 2 is incorrect: The dispatch’s focus on English as a medium for higher education and administration created a pathway for Indians to engage with Western knowledge and participate in the colonial bureaucracy. At school levels, vernacular languages was decided to be the medium of instruction. Statement 3 is correct: Wood’s Dispatch recognised the limitations of solely relying on government-run schools. It proposed a system of grants-in-aid to financially support private educational institutions, particularly those managed by missionaries and Indians. This aimed to expand educational opportunities and cater to a wider population. The introduction of the grant-in-aid system played a crucial role in encouraging the establishment and growth of private schools in India.
During the Non-Cooperation Movement of 1920- 22, one of the beliefs prevalent in Bihar was that Gandhiji would win because he was.
During the Non-Cooperation Movement of 1920-22, one of the beliefs prevalent in Bihar was that Gandhiji would win because he was a symbol of religion.
Which of the following Committee was appointed in 1927 to investigate and suggest the nature of relationship between the British government in India, and the rulers of Princely States?
The Harcourt Butler Committee was appointed in 1927 to investigate and clarify the relationship between the paramount power of the British Raj in India, and the rulers of Princely States. William Searle Holdsworth and Sidney Peel were two other members of the committee.
“She was a notable Indian freedom fighter and political leader, and served as the 52nd President of the Indian National Congress (INC) in 1933. She was recognized for her commitment to Indian nationalism and her work in advancing social reform.” Which of the following personality is being described in the above passage?
lanation:- Nellie Sengupta, born in 1886, was a distinguished Indian freedom fighter and political leader who became the 52nd President of the Indian National Congress (INC) in 1933. An influential figure in the Indian independence movement, Sengupta was recognized for her strong commitment to Indian nationalism and her significant contributions to advancing social reform.
It was a secret society founded by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar (VD Savarkar) and his brother Ganesh Damodar Savarkar (Babarao Savarkar) in 1904 to overthrow British rule in India. It established connections with Indian revolutionaries in London and had links with the India House group, fostering international support for the Indian independence movement. Which of the following revolutionary organisations is described in the above passage?
Abhinav Bharat Society (also known as the Young India Society) was an Indian independence secret society founded by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar and his brother Ganesh Damodar Savarkar in 1904. It was initially started as Mitra Mela in Nasik in 1899 before expanding and changing its name. The society aimed to overthrow British rule through armed rebellion and established international connections with the India House group in London, where Savarkar later lived. India House(founded by Shyamji Krishna Varma in 1905) in London became a center of Indian revolutionary activity,Savarkar stayed there and connected Indian revolutionaries globally. It helped spread anti-British ideas internationally. Anushilan Samiti, established around 1902–1906 in Calcutta, founded by Pramathanath Mitra, strongly inÀuenced by the nationalist movement after the Partition of Bengal 1905; Tarkash Annual PYQ Plus BPSC Concept Wallah.
Which of the following leaders was the second satyagrahi to offer Individual Satyagraha in 1940?
The Individual Satyagraha of 1940, initiated by Gandhi, aimed to assert free speech and protest British policies. It was a response to the inadequate August Offer by the British government. Vinoba Bhave led the first phase of this nonviolent resistance, followed by Jawaharlal Nehru in the second phase.
Who established the servants of Indian society in 1905 AD. ?
To promote Education in India, Gopal Krishna Gokhale (1866-1915) founded the “Servants of the India Society” in Pune in 1905. He was named the ‘Protege Son’ i.e. Manas Putra of Justice Mahadev Govind Ranade, as he was greatly influenced by the social work of Justice Ranade. BCW Bits: This society established many schools, libraries, Industry workers, and “ Night classes of Industry Workers”. As the government endured huge expenses on the army and charged high taxes on cotton, Gokhale slammed the government for doing that. After seeing that, he forced the government to make education compulsory in India. The Freedom Fighter Gopal Krishna Gokhale was born in Maharashtra on May 9th, 1866. He became the representative of the Indians who wanted freedom from British rule by cultivating the scheme of self-rule in India. He is also considered as The mentor (political guru) of Mahatma Gandhi. Note:.
Who established the “Arya Samaj”?
Swami Dayanand Saraswati was a philosopher, social leader, and founder of the Arya Samaj, a reform movement of Vedic dharma. BCW Bits: Dayanand Saraswati was the first to give the call for Swaraj as "India for Indian". Modern History.
The Treaty of Yandabo, signed in 1826, primarily resulted in:
The Treaty of Yandabo, signed on February 24, 1826, ended the First Anglo-Burmese War. Burma ceded territories such as Assam, Manipur, the Arakan (Rakhine) region, and the Tenasserim coast to the British and agreed to pay a large indemnity. The treaty established terms for future relations and solidified British control in the region.
Who hired the ‘Camagata Maru’ ship to go to Vancouver?
The 'Komagata Maru / Camagata Maru ' ship was chartered (hired) in 1914 by Gurdit Singh Sandhu, a wealthy Sikh businessman from Singapore. He hired the Japanese steamship to transport 376 passengers— primarily Sikhs, along with some Muslims and Hindus— from Hong Kong to Vancouver(Canada). The primary objective of this voyage was to challenge Canada's discriminatory 'Continuous Journey Regulation (1908)', an immigration law designed to block Asians from entering the country. Upon reaching Vancouver on May 23, 1914, the Canadian authorities refused to let most of the passengers disembark, forcing the ship to eventually return to India. When the Ship returned near Calcutta at Budge Budge on September 27, 1914, British authorities tried to arrest and control the passengers because they suspected revolutionary connections with the Ghadar Party. A violent clash took place between passengers and police, resulting in deaths and arrests. This further intensified anti-British feelings. BCW Bits: According to the Continuous Journey Regulation, immigrants could enter Canada only if they arrived directly from their country of origin without any stop in between. The Komagata Maru ship was renamed Guru Nanak Jahaz. The Shore Committee: The local South Asian community united to raise funds and provide legal aid, but the British Columbia Court of Appeal ultimately ruled against the passengers.
Consider the following subjects belonging to different lists of the Constitution of India. Which of the following subjects belong to the concurrent list?
1. Protection of wildlife
2. Income on Agriculture
3. Tax on Electricity consumption or sale
4. Price control Out of these:
Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of India deals with the specified separation of powers and functions between the Union & States on different subjects. It contains three lists; i.e. i. Union List - Presently, it consists of 98 entries in which the center has the exclusive powers to make law. It consists of subjects like defense, banking, currency, foreign affairs, inter-state trade and commerce, census, etc. ii. State List - Presently, it consists of 59 entries in which a state in “normal circumstances” has the power to make laws. It consists of subjects like public order, police, public health and sanitation, local government, etc. iii. Concurrent List - Presently, it consists of 52 entries in which both the Parliament and the state legislature have the power to make laws. It consists of subjects like criminal law and procedure, civil procedure, marriage and divorce, population control and family planning, electricity, etc. Protection of Wildlife: Originally in the State List, it was moved to the Concurrent List (Entry 17B) by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. Price Control: This is found in Entry 34 of the Concurrent List. Agriculture Income & Electricity Tax: These are generally State List subjects (Entries 46 and 53, respectively). BCW Bits: According to Article 254 (1), if any provision of state law is repugnant to a provision in a law made by the Parliament, which the Parliament is competent to enact, or with any existing law regarding any matter in the Concurrent List, then the Parliamentary law would prevail over the State law.
Consider the following statements about the Preamble of the Indian Constitution: (1) The Preamble is a part of the Constitution as a൶rmed by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973). (2) The Preamble can be amended under Article 368, but amendments cannot alter the basic structure of the Constitution. (3) The Preamble is justiciable and its provisions are enforceable in Courts of Law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
The Preamble, based on the "Objectives Resolution" drafted by Jawaharlal Nehru, serves as the introduction to the Constitution, outlining its ideology and objectives. It was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on January Tarkash Annual PYQ Plus BPSC Concept Wallah.
Consider the following statement A and Reason R and cohoose the correct answer with the help of code: Assertion (A): The Indian Constitution has federalism with a strong central government. Reason (R): At the time of independence, along with the concern for unity, many socio-economic problems prevailed in the country.
Select the correct answer:
India, a country with immense diversities and social challenges, needed a federal constitution to accommodate these diversities. The framers of the Constitution also aimed to create a strong Centre to prevent disintegration and address socio-economic issues such as poverty, illiteracy, and inequalities. This need for unity and development led to the establishment of a strong central government, hence both the assertion and the reasoning are correct, with the reasoning providing the correct explanation for the assertion.
Money Bills or other financial bills are to be reserved for the consideration of the President after they are passed by the Legislature of the State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
The emergency provisions are contained in Part XVIII of the Constitution of India, from Article 352 to 360. These provisions enable the Central government to meet any abnormal situation effectively. Financial Emergency (Article 360) Grounds of declaration: Article 360 empowers the president to proclaim a Financial Emergency if he/she is satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened. Parliamentary approval and duration: The proclamation must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue.
Where did Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurate India's first underwater metro tunnel on 6 March 2024?
Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated India's first underwater metro route (Kolkata-Howrah) on 6 March 2024. In Kolkata, the 4-8 km metro rail section from Howrah Maidan to Esplanade has been constructed at a cost of Rs 4965 crore. This block has been built at Howrah, the deepest metro station in the country at 30 meters below the earth's surface. Some part of this block passes under the Hooghly River.
Who/Which have the power to authorize the use of the official language of the state in the proceedings in the high court of the state?
- The Governor of a state, with the previous consent of the President can authorize the use of Hindi or any other official language of the state in the proceedings in the high court of the state, but not with respect to the judgements, decrees and orders passed by it.
- In other words, the high court's judgements, decrees and orders must continue to be in English only (until Parliament otherwise provides). Similarly, a state legislature can prescribe the use of any language (other than English) with respect to bills, acts, ordinances, orders, rules, regulations or bye-laws. Still, a translation of the same in the English language is to be published. So, Option (a) is correct.
Vansadhara Water Disputes Tribunal was set up in 2010 to resolve the water dispute between which of the following States?
In India, rivers often Àow across states. When two states disagree over water sharing or the construction of projects, the Central Government may establish a tribunal under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956. Vansadhara (Vamsadhara) is an east-Àowing river originating in the Eastern Ghats near Lanjigarh in Kalahandi district of Odisha. It Àows through Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, and the Bay of Bengal. Both states use its water for irrigation and agriculture. Why the tribunal? Disputes arose mainly over the use of river water and the construction of irrigation projects (like the Neradi Barrage). Odisha raised concerns regarding reduced water availability, while Andhra Pradesh sought greater utilisation of river water for irrigation projects. To resolve the dispute, the Vansadhara Water Disputes Tribunal was constituted in 2010. BCW Bits: Dispute tribunals- Article 262 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to make laws regarding inter-state river water disputes and may bar courts, including the Supreme Court, from interfering. Other inter-state water disputes Cauvery- Karnataka + Tamil Nadu Mahanadi - Chhattisgarh + Odisha Mahadayi - Goa + Karnataka + Maharashtra.
He was an Orientalist and was not in favour of introducing English laws and English ways of life in India. His main idea was to rule the ‘Conquered in their own way’. The above description pertains to which of the following Governor-Generals of Bengal?
Warren Hastings was the first Governor-General of Bengal (1772-1785). He was an enthusiastic supporter of the Orientalists. Warren Hastings was not in favour of introducing English laws and English ways in India. His main idea was to rule the ‘conquered in their own way’.
Which of the following cities is the seat of Parliament of South Africa?
The House of Parliament of South Africa is situated in Cape Town while the seat of government is in Pretoria. Cape Town is known as the legislative capital of South Africa, while Pretoria is known as the administrative capital of South Africa and Bloemfontein is known as the judicial capital of South Africa. The upper and lower house of the Parliament of South Africa is known as National Council of Provinces (90) and National Assembly (400) respectively. Thus, option (d) is the correct answer.
To review the financial position of panchayats, the state Govt. Constitutes every five years a/ an
By Article 243I(1) of the Constitution of India, the State Finance Commission is established by the Governor after every five years to look into the financial conditions of Panchayats.
Which one of the following is the largest committee of the Parliament? (Headmaster BPSC)
The Estimates Committee It is the largest Committee of the Parliament, it is also called the “Continuous Economic Committee”. The Estimates Committee has 30 members and all these members are from Polity and Governance.
The ‘Split System’ in the Indian administration relates to?
The Split system in the Indian administration relates to the formation of policy and its implementation. The policies are formulated by the legislature which includes both the Houses of Parliament, i.e. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha whereas their implementation is done by the executive which includes the elected government.
Which of the following describes India as a Secular State?
Secular Nation means that equal treatment is given to all religions of the state. After the 42nd amendment of the Constitution which was enacted in 1976 the word secular was added to the Preamble of the Constitution. Apart from the Preamble the Fundamental Rights under Article 25-28 i.e. Right to Freedom of Religion also reflects the secular ethos of the constitution. Polity and Governance.
Consider the following statements:- 1. Fodder crops are examples of zaid crops.
2. Zaid crops are sown and harvested between April and June. Select the true statement:-
21 Godavari is the largest peninsular river. It originates from the slopes of the Western Ghats in Nashik district of Maharashtra. Its length is approximately 1,500 km. It flows into the Bay of Bengal. Its drainage system is the largest among the peninsular rivers. Its basin is located in Maharashtra (50 percent of the river basin), Madhya Pradesh, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. Many tributaries are found in Godavari, such as Purna, Wardha, Pranhita, Manjra, Venganga and Penganga. last of these All three tributaries are very large. Due to its large size and expanse, it is also known as 'Dakshin Ganges'. The Kaveri River forms the second largest waterfall in India. It is known as Shivasamundaram. The electricity produced by the falls is supplied to Mysore, Bangalore and Kolar gold fields.
Consider the following statements regarding the Samudrayaan project.
1. Samudrayan is India’s first manned ocean mission (3-member team) to be sent by the Ministry of earth sciences.
2. It has to be sent into a depth of 8,000 metres in a submersible.
Which of the above mentioned statements are correct?
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Samudrayaan is India’s first manned ocean mission (3- member team) to be sent by the Ministry of earth sciences.
- It has an endurance of 12 hours of operational period and 96 hours in case of emergency. The manned submersible will allow scientific personnel to observe and understand unexplored deep sea areas by direct interventions. Further, it will enhance the capability for deep sea man rated vehicle development.
- Statement 2 is incorrect.
- It has to be sent into a depth of 6,000 metres in a submersible.
- National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT), Chennai, an autonomous institute under MoES, has developed 6000 m depth rated Remotely Operated Vehicle (ROV) and various other underwater instruments such as Autonomous Coring System (ACS), Autonomous Underwater Vehicle (AUV) and Deep Sea Mining System (DSM) for the exploration of deep sea.
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the structure and composition of atmosphere?
1. Ozone is found beyond 100 km above the earth's surface.
2. The amount of Water vapour in the atmosphere decreases with altitude.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- Ozone is an important component of the atmosphere found between 10 and 50 km above the earth's surface. Therefore statement 1 is not correct.
- Ozone acts as a filter and absorbs the ultra-violet rays radiating from the sun and prevents them from reaching the surface of the earth.
- Water vapour is a variable gas in the atmosphere, which decreases with altitude.
- In the warm and wet tropics, it may account for four per cent of the air by volume, while in the dry and cold areas of desert and Polar Regions, it may be less than one per cent of the air. Therefore statement 2 is correct.
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): Assertion (A): Monsoon forests are called par excellence. Reason (R): As they form the natural cover almost all over India. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
The Assertion says that monsoon forests are called par excellence. The phrase par excellence means “the best example” or “the most typical representation.” In simple words, it means these forests are considered the most characteristic forests of India. This statement is correct because India’s climate is mainly controlled by the monsoon system, and these forests grow naturally under monsoon climatic conditions. Reason statement- forests form the natural cover almost all over India. Tropical deciduous forests are spread across a very large part of the country — from central India to eastern India and parts of southern India. Since they occupy such a vast geographical area, they are regarded as the dominant natural vegetation type of India. Monsoon forests mainly develop in regions receiving rainfall between about 70 cm and 200 cm. Since a large portion of India falls within this rainfall range, these forests become naturally widespread. They are called deciduous forests because the trees shed their leaves during the dry summer season to conserve water. This is an adaptation to seasonal rainfall conditions. These forests are broadly divided into two types — Moist Deciduous Forests and Dry Deciduous Forests. Moist deciduous forests are found in areas with comparatively higher rainfall, while dry deciduous forests occur in regions with.
Which of the following is not correctly matched? (State) (Hot Springs)
According to the Geological Survey of India, there are 17 major Hot Springs in Gujarat. These are Chabsar, Cambav Wells, Gogha, Harsan, Kawa, Khedapad, Khar, Maktapur,Warha, Mithapur, Unai, Tuwa, Tulsishyam, Savarkundla, Lasundra, Lalpur and Dholera. Narayani Hot spring is not in Gujarat. Manikaran is Hot Spring in Himachal Pradesh, Taptapani in Odisha and Vajreshwari in Maharashtra.
The tropical cyclone Jasper has recently been in the news. The cyclone made a landfall in which of the following countary ?
- A Severe Tropical Cyclone Jasper was a powerful tropical cyclone that impacted northern Queensland (Australia) with torrential rainfall.
- Tropical cyclones are violent storms that originate over oceans in tropical areas and move over to the coastal areas bringing about large scale destruction due to violent winds and very heavy rainfall.
- The cyclonic wind movements are anti-clockwise in the northern hemisphere and clockwise in the southern hemisphere.
Punjab will ban the cultivation of the PUSA-44 paddy variety (non-Basmati) from 2024. Consider the following statements as appropriate reasons for the above decision and mark the incorrect option .
PUSA-44 paddy variety : This high-yielding variety covered 70-80% of the state's total area under paddy cultivation. One of the major benefits of the variety is increased productivity, it provides an average yield of 30-40 quintals per acre as compared to other varieties that provides an yield of an average 28 to 30 quintals per acre. Reasons for ban - a. Long-duration variety requires around 35 to 40 days more than other varieties. b. Extended growth period requires additional irrigation cycles thereby putting strain on groundwater resources. c. Due to the extended maturity period, there is less gap between paddy harvesting and wheat sowing which has led to the issue of stubble burning.
Maithan Dam is on Barakar river, a tributary of Damodar river. Codes :
The Rihand Dam is built on Rihand river, a tributary of the Sone. The Tungabhadra Project is built on Tungabhadra river. It is a joint venture by Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka. Maithan Dam is located on Barakar river, a tributary of Damodar river. Maithan Dam was built in 1957. 3. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (a) Midnapur Canal : Kangsabati River (Kasai) (b) Tawa Project : Krishna River (c) Mettur Dam : Cauvery River (d) Ukai Project : Tapi River U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015 Ans. (b) Correctly matched Canal/Dam/Project with the Rivers are as follows: Midanpur Canal - Kangsabati River Tawa Project - Tawa River Mettur Dam - Cauvery River Ukai Project - Tapi River. Thus option (b) is not correctly matched as Tawa project is on Tawa River not on River Krishna.
Which one of the following countries is the largest country without borders in terma of geographical area?
Country Area New Zealand - 2,68,000 sq. km Philippines - 3,00,000 sq. km Japan - 377915 sq. km Cuba - 110,860 sq. km.
Peanuts are the main crop of :
Peanuts is the main crop of Gambia among the given Countries. Presently, Ghana is the leading producer of groundnuts among the countries given in the options. China is the largest producer of groundnuts, with shell globally. 79. The native place of groundnut is : (a) Australia (b) Brazil (c) China (d) South Africa U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2010 Ans. (b) Brazil in South America is considered the native place of ground nuts.
Which of the following conservation methods did not involve direct participation of communities?
The famous Chipko movement in the Himalayas not only succeeded in stopping deforestation in many areas but also showed that community afforestation campaigns could be made successful by using local plant species. Revival of traditional conservation methods or development of new methods of agroecology are now widespread. Farmers' Seed Bachao Andolan and Navdanaya in Tehri have shown that economically viable agricultural production is possible through diverse crop production even without the use of chemical fertilizers. Joint forest management programs in India highlight the importance of the role of local communities in managing and restoring degraded forests. These programs formally began in 1988 when the state of Odisha passed the first resolution for joint forest management. 'Joint Forest Management' under the Forest Department works for the protection of degraded forests and in this, institutions are formed at the village level in which village and forest department officials work jointly. In return, these communities are entitled to intermediate benefits such as non-timber forest products and also share in the timber benefits derived from successful conservation.
At which of the following places is the Chilika Lake located?
Chilka Lake is a lagoon on the mouth of River Mahanadi in Odisha. Odisha coast is also called Northern Circar. Karnataka coast is on Karnataka's coastal area. Konkan coast is on Maharashtra's western coast and Malabar coast is on Kerala's western coast.
Which of the following is a basic landform?
The volcanic cone is a basic landform. It is formed by fragments (called ejecta) thrown up (ejected) from a volcanic vent, piling up around the vent in the shape of a cone with a central crater. Residual mountain is originally a mountain but due to erosion work they become residual mountain. In the same way, the erosional waterfall and Monadnock are also formed after erosional work. 37. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below: List-I List-II (Mountain) (Country) A. Atlas.
Chaurabari Glacier is located towards –
Chaurabari Glacier is located in Rudraprayag district of Uttarakhand. The glacier lies in north of the Kedarnath Temple. Due to melting of glacier, a lake is formed which is named as Gandhi Sarovar Lake.
In the later half of the nineteenth century, some modern industries started to being established in India, which of the following industries are included in it?
1. Cotton Textile Industry
2. Jute Industry
3. Tata Iron and Steel Company
4. Cement Industry
Select the correct answer using the code:-
In the later half of the nineteenth century, some modern industries started being established in India, but their progress remained very slow. Initially this development was limited to starting only cotton textile and jute industries. Cotton textile mills were mostly established by Indian entrepreneurs and were located in the western regions of the country (today's Maharashtra and Gujarat). The credit for establishing the jute industry can be given to the natives. This industry remained limited to Bengal province only. 5. (B) 1, 2 and 3 only Class- 11, Ch-1, Page-7 The main objective of planning in India is to initiate a process of development that will raise the standard of living and provide new opportunities for a rich and diverse life for the people. - First Five Year Plan 9. (C) All three Class- 11, Ch-2, Page-18 In a market economy, which is also called a capitalist economy, only those consumer goods are produced which are in demand in the market. In this, only those goods are produced which can be sold profitably in the domestic or foreign markets of the country. The iron and steel industry began to develop in the early years of the twentieth century. Tata Iron Steel Company (TISCO) was established in 1907. After the Second World War, some factories of sugar, cement, paper etc. were also established. In a capitalist economy, the goods produced are not distributed among different people according to their needs. Most of the segmentation is based on the purchasing power of individuals and what goods and services they are able to purchase. The idea is that there should be money in the pocket to buy.
Consider the following provisions regarding Mukhyamantri Udyami Yojana.
1. Interest free loan equal to 50% of total project cost (per unit) with a maximum of Rs 5,00,000 (five lakhs).
2. Grant/subsidy of 50% of the sanctioned amount (maximum - Rs 5,00,000).
Which of the above mentioned provisions comes under the ambit of the Mukhyamantri Udyami Yojana ?
- Nitish Kumar, Bihar's Chief Minister, launched two schemes named as 'Mukhya Mantri Yuva Udyami Yojana' and 'Mukhya Mantri Mahila Udyami Yojana on 18th june, 2021. These schemes were launched to promote entrepreneurship among youth and women of all sections.
- The provisions under the scheme are : a. Interest free loan equal to 50% of total project cost (per unit) with a maximum of Rs 5,00,000 (five lakhs). The loan can be repaid in 7 years (84 equal instalments). b. Grant/subsidy of 50% of the sanctioned amount (maximum - Rs 5,00,000). c. After selection, a provision of Rs 25000 per unit for training of beneficiaries. d. Benefits of Bihar Industrial Investment Promotion Policy 2016.
Consider the following scenarios:
1. Decline in India's export volumes due to global economic slowdown.
2. Surge in worldwide crude oil prices following geopolitical tensions.
3. Decrease in funds from foreign remittances due to job losses among Indian expatriates.
How many of the above factors were significant contributors to India's balance of payments crisis in 1991?
- India's balance of payments crisis in 1991 was a culmination of various economic challenges:.
- Decline in India's export volumes: Reduced export volumes impacted India's foreign exchange earnings, contributing to the crisis.
- Surge in worldwide crude oil prices: Escalating crude oil prices, exacerbated by geopolitical tensions such as the Gulf War, escalated India's oil import bill, worsening the balance of payments situation.
- Decrease in funds from foreign remittances: The return of Indian expatriates amid geopolitical instability led to a decrease in remittances, a significant source of foreign exchange for India.
A farmer owns six acres of land but requires only three workers, including himself, to manage farm operations throughout the year. However, he employs seven workers, which includes family members like his wife and children. Which type of unemployment is depicted in the above scenario?
- Structural unemployment occurs when there is a mismatch between the skills possessed by workers and the job opportunities available in the market. In this scenario, there is no indication of a skills mismatch.
- Seasonal unemployment refers to situations where individuals experience a lack of work during specific seasons of the year, typically in sectors like agriculture. While the scenario involves agricultural activities, there is no mention of work being restricted to particular seasons.
- Frictional unemployment arises from temporary periods of joblessness as individuals transition between jobs or search for new employment opportunities. However, the scenario does not suggest temporary unemployment due to job transitions.
- Disguised unemployment is characterized by underemployment, where individuals appear to be working but are not fully utilizing their skills or potential. In this scenario, the farmer employs more workers than necessary for the available work, indicating disguised unemployment where some workers may not be contributing significantly to farm productivity. Therefore, option (d) disguised unemployment is the most appropriate explanation for the scenario provided.
Recently, the Prime Minister and RBI Governor attended a ceremony marking 90 years of the RBI in Mumbai. Consider the following statements regarding the RBI and mark the incorrect option.
- RBI was nationalised in 1949 and is now fully under Government of India.
- The central board of directors manages the affairs of the RBI.
- RBI provides merchant banking services to both central and state governments because it is a government's banker.As a banker to the Government, the Reserve Bank receives and pays money on behalf of the various Government departments.
- Undertakes to float loans and manage them on behalf of the Governments.
- Provides Ways and Means Advances.
Which of the following banks has announced a partnership with Mahendra Singh Dhoni, naming the cricketer as their official "Brand Ambassador"?
- The State Bank of India (SBI), the nation's largest lender, has appointed Mahendra Singh Dhoni as its official Brand Ambassador.
- The cricketer will be required to assume a crucial role in various marketing and promotional campaigns for SBI. This development reflects SBI's commitment to engaging with a younger, more diverse customer base. Beyond his association with SBI, Mahendra Singh Dhoni has also taken up the role of brand ambassador for Reliance Industries Limited's JioMart.
Assertion (A): The BRICS nations are in the process of creating a new currency for cross-border payments. Reason (R): De-dollarization refers to the process of reducing reliance on the US dollar for international trade and financial transactions.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
- De-Dollarization: This term refers to the process by which countries reduce their reliance on the US dollar in international trade and financial transactions. It often involves using alternative currencies for cross-border trade and financial settlements.
- Assertion (A): The BRICS nations are indeed in the process of creating a new currency for cross-border payments as part of their de-dollarization efforts. This move is aimed at reducing their dependency on the US dollar and enhancing their financial sovereignty.
- Reason (R): The definition of de-dollarization is accurately described. It refers to the efforts of countries to minimize the dominance of the US dollar in their international trade and financial systems by adopting alternative currencies.
- Since both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason correctly explains the assertion, the correct answer is a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
The controlling authority of government expenditure is
The Controlling Authority is the Finance Ministry via RBI. RBI is not a completely independent body as it has to act as per the RBI Act & rules framed by the parliament (to be read Ministry of Finance) from time to time.
“Preston curve” was seen in the news, it represents-
lanation:- The Preston curve refers to a certain empirical relationship that is witnessed between life expectancy and per capita income in a country. It was first proposed by American sociologist Samuel H. Preston in his 1975 paper “The changing relation between Mortality and level of economic development”. When a poor country begins to grow, its per capita income rises and causes a significant increase in life expectancy initially as people are able to consume more than just subsistence calories, enjoy better healthcare, etc.
If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will
Interest rate is the amount charged over and above the principal amount by the lender from the borrower. In terms of the receiver, a person who deposits money to any bank or financial institution also earns additional income considering the time value of money, termed as interest received by the depositor. When the RBI wants to increase the money supply in the economy, it decreases the interest rate which leads to an increase in the investment expenditure in the economy. If the Interest rate is decreased in the Economy, then money is easily available to the consumer and then consumption expenditure (like buying AC, Fridge, cooler etc) is increased. If the interest rate is decreased, total savings in the economy will decrease as people will not be tempted to save as saving will not give them the required yield. If the interest rate is decreased Money is easily available to individuals and Industrialists, hence Investment in Industries or say Housing by Individuals will increase.
What is the theme of ‘World Intellectual Property Day 2024’?
future with innovation and creativity World Intellectual Property Day, observed annually on April 26, is organized by WIPO to highlight the.
According to IMF, what is the GDP growth projection of India for FY 2024-25?
Metals like potassium and sodium react rapidly with cold water. The reaction between sodium and potassium is fast and exothermic Magnesium does not react with cold water, but when it reacts with hot water it produces magnesium hydroxide and hydrogen gas. Because the bubbles of hydrogen gas stick to the surface of the magnesium metal. Hence they also start swimming. Metals like aluminium, iron and zinc neither react with cold nor hot water, but react with steam to give metal oxide and hydrogen. Metals like lead, copper, silver and gold do not react with water at all. The IMF raised India’s GDP growth projection for FY 2024-25 to 6.8%, up 30 basis points from its previous forecast. India’s growth is anticipated to stay strong due to robust domestic demand and a growing working-age population. Globally, growth is projected to continue at 3.2% for FY 2024-25 and FY 2025-26. India retains its status as the world’s fastest-growing economy, outpacing China’s growth projection of 4.6% in the same period.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Other common refractive errors: Defect Description Image Formation Correction Hypermetropia (Far- sightedness) Near objects appear blurry; distant objects are clear. Presbyopia Age-related loss of near-focusing ability due to a stiffening lens. $VWLJPDWLVP Blurred vision at all distances due to irregular corneal curvature. Cataract Gradual blurring/loss of vision due to the lens becoming opaque. Assertion (A): A myopic person cannot see distant objects clearly. Reason (R): The image of distant objects forms behind the retina.
Vision defects arise when the eye's natural focusing mechanism fails to align light directly on the retina. These refractive errors are primarily caused by irregularities in the shape of the eyeball or the Àexibility of the lens, requiring corrective optics to restore clarity. Myopia occurs when the eye is too long or the cornea is too curved, causing light to focus in front of the retina instead of on it. This results in clear vision for nearby objects but blurred vision for distant ones, making Assertion (A) correct. However, Reason (R) is false because it incorrectly locates the focal point behind the retina. To correct this, a concave lens is used to spread the light rays outward, pushing the focal point further back so it lands precisely on the retina. Behind the retina (due to a short eyeball or Àat lens). Convex (converging) lens Behind the retina (similar to hypermetropia). Bifocal lenses Cylindrical lenses Multiple focal points instead of one. Light is blocked/scattered by the cloudy lens. Surgical replacement (IOL) BCW Bits: The power of the corrective lens directly indicates the defect: negative power (concave/diverging) corrects myopia, while positive power (convex/converging) corrects hypermetropia. Note that cataract differs from the other three, it is not a refractive error but a structural opacity of the lens, corrected by surgery rather than spectacles.
Consider the following statements about PRATUSH Telescope
1. It is a radio telescope to be sited on the moon’s far side to detect signals from the first stars and galaxies.
2. It will be developed by the Raman Research Institute (RRI) and Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). Choose the correct statement:
accelerating progress toward a global net zero energy system.It leverages the insights and influence of the world’s leading energy authority to accelerate clean energy transitions, particularly in emerging and developing economies.Its goals are in line with the objectives of the 2015 Paris Agreement and the Sustainable Development Goals established by the United Nations.
Consider the following statements:- 1. The sinkholes and dolines joint together because of slumping of materials or due to the roof collapse of caves resulting in the formation of lapis.
2. Small to medium sized round to subrounded shallow depressions foring the surface of lime stones through solution. Select the true statement:-
In unicellular organisms, new organisms are created by cell division or fission. Several modes of fragmentation were observed. The cells of many bacteria and protozoa usually get divided into two equal parts by cell division. In organisms like amoeba, cell division can occur from any plane. But in some unicellular organisms the physical structure is more organized. For example, the pathogen of Kala-azar, Leishmania has a whip-like microscopic structure at one end of the cell. In such organisms, binary fission occurs from a fixed plane.
Which of the following events occur during photosynthesis?
1. Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
2. Reduction of water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen
3. Decomposition of carbon dioxide into carbohydrates Code :
The following events take place during the photosynthesis process- (i) Absorbing of light energy by chlorophyll. (ii) Conversion of light energy into chemical energy and hydrogen of water molecules. And decomposition into oxygen. (iii) Reduction of carbon dioxide into carbohydrates. It is not necessary that these steps occur immediately one after the other, for example xerophytes take carbon dioxide at night and form an intermediate product. During the day, chlorophyll absorbs energy and produces end products.
Which acid is described as HOOCCOOH?
Oxalic acid is described as HOOCCOOH (or (COOH)2 or C2H2O4). It is the simplest dicarboxylic acid. It is an organic compound with the systematic name Ethanedioic acid. It is a weak acid and partially ionized in an aqueous . It is widely used for removing stains, marks or rust. It is toxic.
Which of the following statements correctly describes the Zeeman Effect?
lanation:- The Zeeman Effect refers to the phenomenon where spectral lines of atoms are split into multiple components when the atoms are exposed to a magnetic field. This splitting occurs because the magnetic field interacts with the magnetic dipole moments of the electrons, causing a shift in the energy levels of the electron orbits and hence the spectral lines. Explanation:- Planck’s Quantum Theory, proposed by Max Planck, introduced the revolutionary idea that energy is not emitted or absorbed continuously but in discrete units or “quanta.” This concept was fundamental in the development of quantum mechanics. Planck introduced the idea that energy is quantized and can only be emitted or absorbed in specific, discrete quantities called quanta. This concept was crucial for explaining black-body radiation and led to the development of quantum mechanics.
The breath test conducted by police to check drunken drivers has which one of the following on the filter paper?
A Breathalyzer includes a mouthpiece and two chambers containing liquid connected to a meter that detects a colour change. The chamber contains several compounds such as Potassium dichromate, Sulfuric acid, and Silver nitrate. To use the Breathalyzer, the subject exhales through the mouthpiece into a test chamber filled with a reddish-orange solution of potassium dichromate (K2Cr2O7). The alcohol reacts with the reddish-orange potassium dichromate and turns green. The degree of colour change is directly related to the level of alcohol in the expelled air. Note: The more ethanol is present, the greater the amount of green colour produced. It includes both oxidation and reduction reactions.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Kerosene has a higher refractive index (1.44) than water (1.33). Reason (R) : Refractive index of a medium depends on its mass density²the greater the mass density, the greater the speed of light through it.
Assertion (A) is True: Kerosene has a higher absolute refractive index (1.44) than water (1.33). Therefore, kerosene is optically denser than water. Reason (R) is False: The reason statement contains two major scientific errors: Optical Density Mass Density: A medium's refractive index depends on its optical density, which is completely independent of its mass density. For example, kerosene is optically denser than water, but it has a lower mass density (which is why kerosene Àoats on water). The Speed of Light Relationship: The speed of light in a medium (v) is inversely proportional to its refractive index (n), as shown by the formula: c n v = (where c is the speed of light in a vacuum). This means that as the refractive index increases, the speed of light decreases. The reason incorrectly claims that light travels faster through denser media. BCW Bits: Light travels slower in kerosene than in water because kerosene is optically denser, despite being physically lighter (lower mass density)
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about Vitamin Bၶၷ? a. It is also known as cobalamin. b. It is composed of cobalt atoms. c. It consists of corrin rings. Choose the correct option:
Vitamin Bၶၷ is a very important water-soluble vitamin needed for: Formation of red blood cells, Nervous system function, DNA synthesis; Deficiency can cause: Anaemia Weakness, Nerve problems. A corrin ring is a large organic ring structure. Similar to porphyrin rings found in hemoglobin, but slightly different. It holds the cobalt atom at the center. Sources of Vitamin Bၶၷ:- Mostly found in Milk, Eggs, Fish, Meat.Strict vegetarians may develop deficiency if intake is low. Importance:- It helps in Nerve insulation (myelin sheath), RBC formation, Cell division. Vitamin Bၶၷ deficiency can cause pernicious anaemia. Absorption of Bၶၷ requires intrinsic factor from stomach. Liver stores Vitamin Bၶၷ for several years. Bၶၷ deficiency may lead to tingling sensation in hands and feet. Cyanocobalamin is a commonly used supplement form of Bၶၷ. Bၶၷ is synthesized naturally by certain bacteria. Vegans are often advised to take Bၶၷ supplements.
Which of the following has the highest melting point?
Boron forms a covalent bond with the neighbouring elements by sharing its valence electrons with the other elements. A covalent bond is a strong bond and requires high energy to break it thereby possessing a higher melting point among the metalloid. BCW Bits: Metalloids can be defined as chemical elements which have chemical properties and physical properties that fall in between those of metals and non-metals categories. Group 13 is considered as metalloids. There are 7 metalloids Boron, Silicon, Germanium, Arsenic, Antimony, Tellurium, Polonium, and Astatine. Boron has a brownish-red colour. It is in solid form at Room temperature and evaporates easily. Boron has high melting and boiling point compared to other elements in group 13 because of strong covalent bonds between the atoms of boron.
Which of the following is the cause of Down’s syndrome ?
lanation:- Down’s syndrome, also known as trisomy 21, is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. This genetic anomaly results in a total of three copies of this chromosome instead of the usual two.
What is the main feature of luminous paint ?
Luminous paint, also known as glow-in-the-dark paint, contains phosphorescent materials that absorb light energy and then re-emit it over time. When the paint is exposed to a light source, it absorbs energy and then glows in the dark after the light source is removed. This property makes it useful for applications like emergency signs, watch dials, and decorative items.
Iron is a constituent of which of the following?
Haemoglobin is a complex protein found in red blood cells that is responsible for transporting oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body. Each haemoglobin molecule contains four iron atoms in the form of "heme" groups, which bind to oxygen molecules. This iron content is also what gives blood its characteristic red color. In contrast, Chlorophyll (the pigment in plants) contains Magnesium at its center rather than iron. While some proteins do contain iron (known as metalloproteins), iron is the fundamental, defining constituent required for the structure and function of haemoglobin.
The disease caused by a virus is
A virus is an infectious microbe consisting of a genetic material (either DNA or RNA.It can’t have both) surrounded by a protein coat. A virus cannot replicate alone; instead, it must infect cells and use components of the host cell to make copies of itself. Viruses cause familiar infectious diseases such as the common cold, flu and warts. They also cause severe illnesses such as HIV/AIDS, Ebola, and COVID-19. Typhoid, cholera and tetanus are all bacterial diseases. Typhoid fever is a life-threatening infection caused by the bacterium Salmonella Typhi. It is usually spread through contaminated food or water. Cholera is an acute diarrheal illness caused by infection of the intestine with Vibrio cholerae bacteria. People can get sick when they swallow food or water contaminated with cholera bacteria. Tetanus is an infection caused by bacteria called Clostridium tetani. When these bacteria enter the body, they produce a toxin that causes painful muscle contractions. Another name for tetanus is “lockjaw”. It often causes a person’s neck and jaw muscles to lock, making it hard to open the mouth or swallow.
What does the thumb indicate in the right hand thumb rule?
Ch- Russia successfully tested its Angara-A5 space rocket from Vostochny Cosmodrome. Earlier attempts on April 9 and 10 were canceled due to technical issues. The rocket reached an altitude of over 25,000 kilometers per hour. This marked Russia’s third successful test. The test coincided with Cosmonaut Day, commemorating Yuri Gagarin’s historic spaceflight in 1961. The Angara-A5 is a 54.5-meter, 773-ton three-stage rocket capable of carrying 24.5 tons into space. 12, page-221 Imagine that you are holding a current carrying conductor in your right hand in such a way that your thumb points in the direction of the current, then your fingers will be wrapped around the conductor in the direction of the field lines of the magnetic field is called Right Hand thumb rule.
Consider the statement –
1. Nepal is bordered by Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Sikkim and Uttarakhand.
2. Bhutan shares its border only with West Bengal, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.
3. Bangladesh shares its border only with West Bengal, Meghalaya, Tripura and Assam. The false statement is-
- Recently, Goan cashew (kernel) got the geographical indication (GI) tag.
- Cashew is one of the most important plantation crops in India. JOIN - PRAM IAS JOIN PRAM IAS OFFICIAL for growing cashew. In general, all soils from sandy to laterite are well suited for this crop.
- The cultivation of this crop is being extended to non-traditional areas in the plains of Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and some parts of North East hill region.
Consider the following statements:
Assertion : Bihar¶s economy has seen significant growth in recent years.
Reason : Infrastructure development, agriculture and human development are playing positive roles
Select the correct answer from the following codes: 179 Bihar Special
Assertion [A]: Bihar¶s economy has seen significant growth in recent years. This statement is true. Bihar has indeed experienced notable economic growth, often recording high growth rates among Indian states in recent years. Reason [R]: Infrastructure development, agriculture and human development are playing positive roles. This statement is also true. These sectors are key drivers of economic growth, and their development in Bihar has contributed to the state’s economic progress. Relationship: The reason (R) directly explains the assertion (A). The positive roles played by infrastructure, agriculture, and human development are precisely why Bihar¶s economy has grown significantly. Therefore, R is the correct explanation for A.
Consider the following statements about the Bihar Electric Vehicle (EV) Policy-2023- 1. The policy aspires to see 15% of all new vehicles registered in Bihar by 2028 being EVs.
2. subsidies of up to 75% vehicle tax and purchase incentives of up to ₹ 1.25 lakh for the first 1,000 personal electric four-wheelers will be given to promote adoption of EVs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct : CM of Bihar, Mr. Nitish Kumar government approved the Bihar Electric Vehicle (EV) Policy-2023, which aspires to see 15% of all new vehicles registered in Bihar by 2028 being EVs. Statement 2 is correct : To encourage adoption of EVs, the EV policy includes various initiatives, including subsidies of up to 75% vehicle tax and purchase incentives of up to ₹ 1.25 lakh for the first 1,000 personal electric four-wheelers. Additionally, the first 10,000 personal electric two-wheelers will get a tax rebate of up to 75% and purchase incentives of up to ₹ 10,000.
Consider the following statements:
1. Except for some hills of Champaran, the remaining plain area of North Bihar is completely Àat.
2. The plains of North Bihar are spread over approximately 90, 000 sq. km.
3. The plains of South Bihar are spread over approximately 10, 568 sq. km.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
North Bihar is part of the Indo-Gangetic plain and is generally Àat alluvial land; only small hills like those in.
Dharwar rock is found in which of the following districts of Bihar?
Dharwar rock is found in all of the mentioned districts of Bihar: Munger, Jamui, and Nawada. It’s also present in other parts of Bihar, such as Aurangabad, Gaya, and Rajgir. Dharwar rock is one of the oldest rock formations in India and plays a significant role in the geology and topography of the region.
Which one of the following wildlife/bird sanctuaries of Bihar is the largest in terms of geographical area (in sq. km)?
In terms of area, and sequence of the above Wildlife, Bird sanctuaries in descending order is: Kaimur Sanctuary > Valmiki Vanya Prani Sanctuary > Bhimband Sanctuary > Gautam Buddha Sanctuary. A list of various wildlife/ bird sanctuaries of Bihar is given below. Name Location Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary Kaimur Valmiki National Park (VTR) West Champaran Barela Jheel Salim Ali-Jubba Sahni (Baraila) Bird Sanctuary Vaishali Bhimbandh Wildlife Sanctuary Munger Gautam Budha (Buddha) Wildlife Sanctuary– BR Gaya Kanwar Jheel Bird Sanctuary Begusarai Kusheshwar Asthan Bird Sanctuary Darbhanga Nagi Dam Bird Sanctuary Jamui Nakti Dam Bird Sanctuary Jamui Pant (Rajgir) Wildlife Sanctuary Nalanda Udaipur (Udaypur) Wildlife Sanctuary West Champaran Bhagalpur Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Wildlife Sanctuary.
Which is the oldest church in Bihar?
Padri ki Haveli (literally ‘mansion of the pastor’), also known as St Mary’s Church, is the oldest church in Patna. This church was destroyed by Nawab Mir Qasim because of the quarrel with the British. While the church was first built in 1713, the structure that we see today was designed by a Venetian architect, Tirreto, in 1772. Test Your Knowledge.
The name of the Hindi weekly which was the mouthpiece of agrarian and peasant movements in Bihar in 1940 was
The Hindi journal ‘Hunkar’ started by Sahajanand Saraswati was published weekly during the 1940s under the Hindi literaries like Pandit Yamuna Karjee along with Rahul Sankrityayan and others. Hunkar later became the mouthpiece of the peasant movement and the agrarian movement in Bihar and was instrumental in spreading the movement. Note: For more details about Sahajanand Saraswati refer to Que no 70.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of Ashoka’s religious trip?
The correct sequence of the Ashoka religious tour was Lumbini, Kapilavastu, Bodhgaya, Sarnath, Kushinagar, and Shravasti. After accepting Buddhism, Ashoka started to practice the Dhamma actively and went out on periodic tours preaching the Dhamma to the rural people and relieving their suffering.
Bihar government prepared a 15 year Disaster Risk Reduction roadmap 2015-2030. This roadmap has been prepared following which agreement/ Framework?
The third World Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction (WCDRR), held in Sendai from March 14- 18, 2015, adopted the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction (SFDRR).The SFDRR outlined 7 Targets and 4 Priorities.A decision was made in the last week of March 2015 to implement the framework by developing Bihar’s Disaster Risk Reduction (DRR) Roadmap through the Bihar Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction (BCDRR), culminating in the release of the ‘Patna Declaration’ by the Honourable Minister for Disaster Management.
‘Gandak Project’ is a joint project of which two states?
'Gandak Project' is a joint venture of India and Nepal as per the agreement signed between the two Governments on Dec. 4, 1959. Bihar and Uttar Pradesh are the participating Indian States. As a part of this bilateral agreement, the Gandak Barrage, a part of Gandak Project, was built in 1968-69 over the Gandak river for providing irrigation to Nepal, U.P. and Bihar. Nepal also gets electricity from this project.
Manjhar Kund is situated in which district of Bihar?
Manjhar Kund Waterfall, located in the Kaimur Range near Sasaram, the district headquarters of Rohtas District in Bihar, is a cascade and segmented waterfall on the Kav River, primarily reliant on the rainy season. It is considered one of the finest waterfalls in Bihar.
Who led cultivators in Bihar during the Non- Cooperation Movement?
The cultivators in Bihar were led by Swami Vidyanand during the Non-cooperation movement. BCW Bits: Swami Vidyanand- He was the most important peasant leader in Bihar during the Non-Cooperation Movement. He was active in Bhagalpur and Madhubani belts. Swami Sahjanand Saraswati. Swami Sahjanand Saraswati also known as “Kishan Pran”, was born in Gazipur (Uttar Pradesh). He formed the All India Kisan Sabha in 1936 at Lucknow. He played an important role in the Non- Cooperation Movement, Civil Disobedience Movement, All India Kisan Sabha, and Quit India Movement. His area of influence were the Shahabad region and Bihta. Other personalities related to the Peasant movement from Bihar were:- Sri Krishna Singh & Karyanand Sharma- Munger (Barahiya tal) Yadunanadan Sharma- Gaya (Reora Satyagraha) Yamuna Karjee- Saran Rahul Sankrityayan- Chapra (Annawari) (Ambari Satyagraha) Panchanan Sharma.
The Ancient University of Vikramshila was founded by which ruler of the Pala dynasty?
Dharmapala founded the famous Vikramshila University. Vikramshila was one of the most important centres of Buddhist learning in ancient India and was located in Present-day Bihar near Bhagalpur. It became especially famous for higher studies in Buddhist philosophy, logic, tantra, and grammar. The university attracted students and scholars from different parts of Asia, including Tibet. The Pala rulers were major patrons of Buddhism, particularly Mahayana Buddhism. Dharmapala played a significant role in promoting education and monastic learning. Along with Vikramshila, the Palas also supported other great educational centres like Nalanda and Odantapuri. Palas were among the last major Buddhist rulers of northern India, and their patronage helped Preserve Buddhist scholarship for centuries. BCW Bits: Nalanda University was one of the oldest residential universities in the world. Xuanzang and I-Tsing studied at Nalanda. The Pala dynasty mainly ruled Bengal and Bihar. Gopala was elected by local chiefs according to some historical accounts. Odantapuri was another important Buddhist learning centre. Bakhtiyar Khalji destroyed several Buddhist institutions in Bihar. Ancient universities functioned mainly through monasteries. Bihar was a major centre of Buddhist learning in ancient India. The Sena dynasty succeeded the Palas in Bengal.
Select the wrong statement on the basis of crop production in Bihar:
- Kishanganj district produces the most tea in Bihar. Purnia district produces the most jute in Bihar. Bihar produces the most makhana in the country, Mithila makhana has also received the GI tag. Begusarai is called the home of maize. Rohtas district produces the most paddy in Bihar. Rohtas district produces the most wheat in Bihar.
- Bhimbandh Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Munger. It was established in 1976. This sanctuary is spread over 681 square kilometers. Sanjay Gandhi Park is located in Patna. Gautam Buddha Park is located in Gaya. The habitat of Panthera tigris is Valmiki Nagar Tiger Reserve (West Champaran)
The Permanent Settlement was introduced in 1793 by Lord Cornwallis in:
Zamindari or Permanent settlement was introduced by Cornwallis in 1793 through the Permanent Settlement Act.It was introduced in the provinces of Bengal, Bihar, Orissa and Benaras. It comprised 19% of British India. If the Zamindars failed to pay the assessed revenue by the exact moment of sunset on a predetermined fixed date, their estates were immediately confiscated and auctioned off to recover the dues. Hence it is also called ‘Sunset Law’. Zamindars were recognized as the owners of the lands. 1/11 of the share belonged to Zamindars and 10/11 of the share belonged to the East India Company.
Jamui, Bihar, is known for its:
As per Media reports, in India, the largest reserves of gold ore (primary) are located in Bihar (44%), followed by Rajasthan (25%), Karnataka (21%), West Bengal (3%), Andhra Pradesh (3%), and Jharkhand (2%). The remaining 2% resources of ore are located in Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Kerala, Maharashtra, and Tamil Nadu. The presence of gold in areas such as Karmatia, Jhajha, and Sono in the Jamui district was confirmed by the Geological Survey of India.
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GS Mock Test III | 100 MCQs with Explanations
Prepared by Brajesh Mohan (GS Sandhan)
Focused Preparation for BPSC & Bihar Competitive Examinations
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